SK0-003 EXAM ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECT SPRING FALL 2023/24 LATEST EDITION GUARANTEED GRADE A+

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Since simulating hardware failure is risky, in case the server may never be required. T/F? A. TRUE B. FALSE B - The only way you can be sure of how the backup will perform is when the crash actuall ... y happens. As a preventive maintenance task, you may set up a schedule to check for these failures at regular intervals. Where can you obtain the RAID related messages in the server? A. Checking event logs B. Checking the emails C. Backup logs D. None of the above A- Event logs will record all application, system and security related information of the server. This will also indicate RAID related occurrences. 1. A server is experiencing problems. Which step should the administrator NOT take to identify the problem? A. Try to recreate the problem. B. Ask users to describe the issue. C. Purchase a new server. D. Think of a theory that explains the issue. C. Purchasing a new server does not identify the issue, it avoids the issue. The other methods are acceptable steps to take to identify the problem. 2. A server has one 40GB hard drive, two 50GB hard drive and two 60GB hard drive. The administrator wants to configure all 5 drives in a RAID 5 array. How much usable disk space will this array have? A. 160 GB B. 180 GB C. 200 GB D. 240 GB A. Since the smallest hard drive is 40GB, that is the maximum size available on each hard drive. With 5 hard drives, n = 5 and the total capacity of the RAID 5 array is 200GB. Using the formula 1 - 1/n yields 0.8, and 200GB x 0.8 = 160GB. 3. A server has three 50GB hard drives attached in a RAID array. Which RAID configuration would provide the fastest performance? A. RAID 6 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 1 D. RAID 0 D. RAID 0 provides the fastest performance if fault tolerance is not a requirement. 4. Users report a server cannot be found on the network. What should be done first in a bottom-up troubleshooting approach? A. Update the server OS. B. Escalate the problem. C. Call the ISP. D. Ensure the correct cables are used. D. Using the bottom up approach, the first stage is to check everything that is related to the physical layer of the OSI model. Ensuring the correct cables are used is the only troubleshooting step that is done in the physical layer. 5. A user complains she can no longer access a Windows server they were working on all afternoon. What should the administrator do first? A. Hang up the phone. B. Ask the user to recreate the problem. C. Reboot the PC. D. Reinstall Windows. B. By asking the user to recreate the problem, an administrator can see first hand the problem and what the conditions were that created the problem. Hanging up the phone on the user is rude and may lead to dismissal. Rebooting the PC will not help solve the problem. Reinstalling Windows avoids the issue, and there is no guarantees it will resolve the issue. 6. Which type of memory can RAM be? A. EEPROM B. DDR3 C. L1 D. Flash B. DDR3 is a type of RAM. EEPROM is a type of ROM. L1 is cache memory located in the processor. Flash is a type of solid state memory. 7. An administrator just installed a new printer and the printer is recognized by Windows. The printer will not print. Which is most likely the reason for this? A. There is no power. B. The cable is not connected properly. C. The print spooler is paused. D. The print device is not installed properly. C. Most likely the print spooler is paused. Since Windows recognizes the printer it is unlikely to be a power, cable or installation problem. 8. What is the best way to describe server virtualization? A. One platform on one host machine. B. Many services on many host machines. C. Many logical platforms on one host machine. D. One logical platform running applications. C. To take full advantage of server virtualization, administrators would install many logical platforms or guest OS's on one physical host machine. 9. When downloading updated drivers for a printer, which source should be used by an administrator? A. Printer manufacturer website B. Third party driver website C. P2P client D. Online printer forums A. Updated drivers should be downloaded from the printer manufacturer's website. Drivers downloaded from third party websites, on P2P clients, or from online printer forums may contain viruses or spyware. 10. Which RAID array will provide fault tolerance and at least 900GB of storage space? A. Three 300GB drives with RAID 0 B. Four 400GB drives with RAID 1 C. Five 250GB drives with RAID 5 D. Five 250GB drives with RAID 6 C. With 5 hard drives, n = 5 and the total capacity of the RAID 5 array is 1250GB. Using the formula 1 - 1/n yields 0.8, and 1250GB x 0.8 = 1000GB which is greater than 900GB. Using RAID 0 is not fault tolerant. The RAID 1 solution only provides 800GB of storage space. The RAID 6 solution only provides 750GB of storage space. 11. What is the optimal range for humidity in a server room? A. 0%-25% B. 20%-80% C. 40%-60% D. 75%-100% C. The optimal range for humidity is 40%-60%. The first answer leaves the server room too dry and susceptible to electrostatic discharge. The second answer encompasses a section that is too dry and too humid. The last answer is too humid and may allow water to condense on inside the server case. 13. Which service describes leasing addresses to host computers? A. DHCP B. DNS C. VTP D. SNMP A. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is responsible for leasing out addresses to host computers. Domain Name Service is responsible for translating domain names to IP addresses. Virtual Trunking Protocol is responsible for propagating VLAN information to other switches in the network. Simple Network Management Protocol is used to simplified management of the network by allowing for automated monitoring of network devices. 14. Users cannot print to any network printer managed by the print server. What should the administrator do first? A.Power cycle all the network printers. B. Update printer drivers on all user computers. C. Reinstall Windows on the print server. D. Restart the spooler service. D. The easiest thing to do is to restart the print spooler service. If that doesn't work, then the other methods are possible. However, each of these other methods are extremely time consuming and should be implemented as a last resort. 15. What best describes HyperThreading? A. It is a management protocol. B. Performs computational tasks in parallel. C. Performs automatic host address configuration. D. It speeds up error reporting services. B. HyperThreading was introduced by Intel for their Pentium 4 processors. It allowed a single physical processor to act as a multicore processor by processing multiple threads at the same time. 17. What is the difference between incremental and differential backups? A. Incremental backups take less time to perform than differential backups. B. Differential backups reset the archive bit while incremental backups do not. C. Differential backups require more backups to be restored than incremental backups. D. Both backups are the same. They are named differently because they are proprietary. A. Incremental backups are faster to perform than differential backups. Incremental backups reset the archive bit while the differential backups do not. Differential backups require less backups to be restored than incremental backups. Because of this, restoration is faster using differential backups than incremental backups. Both backups are not the same, and both are not proprietary. 18. An application crashed on the server. What should the administrator do first to solve the problem? A. Look through the event logs. B. Restart the application. C. Use a search engine to investigate the cause. D. Escalate the problem. A. Looking through the event logs will help determine the cause of the application crashing. Restarting the application will not determine the cause of the crash. Using a search engine will not help narrow the cause of the crash. Escalating the problem is not practical as not enough information has been gathered about the problem. 20. What needs to be installed to automate network management systems? A. NNTP B. STP C. SNMP D. ICMP C. Simple Network Management Protocol is installed to automate network management systems. Network News Transfer Protocol is used to transfer Usenet articles. Spanning Tree Protocol is used to prevent infinite loops in a switched network. Internet Control Messaging Protocol is used to send status or error messages. 21. Which of the following describe a server that helps send and receive emails? A. A dedicated application server. B. A distributed application server. C. A print server. D. A DHCP server. B. A distributed application server is used by email applications to distribute email messages to end users. A dedicated application server is a server that is dedicated to performing a single task like DHCP or DNS. 22. What is the minimum number of drives in a RAID 5 array? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 B. The minimum number of drives required in a RAID 5 array is 3. Using 2 drives, one cannot configure a RAID 5 array. While it is possible to configure a RAID 5 array with 4 or 5 drives, it is not the minimum number of drives allowed. 23. Which RAID array is the least fault tolerant? A. RAID 0. B. RAID 1. C. RAID 0+1. D. RAID 5. A. RAID 0 has no fault tolerance at all. Therefore, it is the least fault tolerant. 27. What is an advantage of a blade server? A. Takes up less space. B. Allow for faster processing. C. Can aggregate Ethernet links. D. Additional RAM can be installed. A. The main advantage in installing a blade server is conservation of space. Since blade servers are confined to a small space, they lose their ability for high processing. Aggregation of Ethernet links and additional RAM are not benefits of blade servers. 28. To test name resolution, what command should an administrator use? A. dig B. ifconfig C. ping D. mount A. In a Linux system, the dig command can also be used to test name resolution. The ifconfig command is used to display IP configuration settings. The ping command is used to test for connectivity between devices. The mount command is used to mount a hard drive in the system. 30. An uniterruptible power supply is no longer working. What is most likely the cause? A. The cable is not connected to the computer. B. A new battery is needed. C. The computer is incompatible. D. Windows needs to be reinstalled. B. The key here is that the UPS is no longer working which implies it used to work. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume the cable is connected to the computer, the computer is compatible, and Windows does not need to be reinstalled. Therefore, the only answer is that a new battery for the UPS may be needed. 33. What is the most common problem in server rooms? A. Cold rooms. B. Dirty floor mats. C. Recurring floods. D. Dust buildup. D. The most common problem is server rooms is dust buildup. Cold rooms is not a problem, but rather encouraged. Dirty floor mats are not a problem. Recurring floods are not a common problem, but it is a problem. 34. An administrator installs a half rack mount server in a server room. He installs eight 2U server chassis on the rack. How many inches are left on the rack? A. 7 inches B. 12 inches C. 17.5 inches D. 21 inches A. A half rack mount server is 20U. Eight 2U chassis equals 16U. Therefore, the amount remaining is 4U. 1U = 1.75 inches, so 4 x 1.75 = 7 inches. 35. An administrator wants to increase reliability of the email server. Which component should be installed to increase reliability of connectivity? A. Reinstall drivers. B. Upgrade the RAM. C. Install a second hard drive. D. Install a second NIC. D. Installing a second NIC will increase reliability of the email server by ensuring a backup network connection is available in case one fails. Reinstalling drivers is unnecessary and will not increase reliability. Upgrading the RAM will not increase reliability. Installing a second hard drive will not increase reliability unless a RAID array is configured. 36. Which entry method can provide security and non-repudiation? A. Physical key. B. PIN entry. C. Smart card. D. Solid door. C. Smart cards can provide security and non-repudiation. Whenever a smart card is scanned to gain access, it can record the user into the access log to provide non-repudiation. A physical key is secure, but it does not provide nonrepudiation as anyone who has a key can gain access. PIN entry is secure, but it does not provide non-repudiation as anyone who knows the PIN can gain access. A solid door is somewhat secure. However, without a lock, the door would be useless. 37. What is the term for a component that is connected and powered, but stays offline until another component fails? A. Ready-to-go B. Hot swappable C. Hot spare D. Reserved C. Hot spare is the term for a component that is connected and powered, but stays offline until another component fails. 38. Which of the following is considered the most important environmental issue in a server room? A. Recycle bin in the server room. B. Unlocked server room. C. Sticky door handle. D. Gum on the floor. B. The only important environmental issue here is that the server room is unlocked. An unlocked server room is potentially dangerous as it invites possibly theft or damage to the server equipment. The other answers are environmental concerns, but nothing that is as important as an unlocked server room. 39. Which of the following servers can be configured to process user request to access Internet sites while limiting the amount of bandwidth forwarded out the company WAN? A. Web server. B. Proxy server. C. DHCP server. D. File server. B. The most common use of a proxy server in an organization occurs when clients connect to a web server. Instead of sending the information out to the Internet each time clients want to visit the same website, the website will be cached on the proxy server, and will send the website saved in the cache back to the clients. The use of a proxy server in this manner saves bandwidth and limits the amount of WAN traffic that exits an organization. 40. When moving a rack mount server, what is the most important thing to do? A. Remove all components from the rack before transport. B. Push as hard as you can to move the rack to the destination faster. C. Send an email informing others your plan to move the rack. D. Ensure the path is extra slippery to help move the rack. A. It is important to remove all component from a rack before transport because a rack will all the components attached is extremely heavy and a hazard for crushing. Pushing as hard as possible will increase the likelihood of tipping the server rack. Sending an email informing others doesn't prevent the danger of moving the heavy rack. The path should be checked for potential hazards and not checked to ensure the path is extra slippery. 41. The company backs up data using Full backup on Sunday night at 11pm. On weekdays and Saturday, the company backs up data using Incremental backups at 6pm. The server crashes Wednesday afternoon. How many backups are required to fully restore the server? A. One B. Two C. Three backups are required to restore the data on the server. The first backup is the full backup made on Sunday night. The next backups are the incremental backups made on Monday and Tuesday. 43. What three basic components are in the SNMP model? D. The three basic components in the SNMP model are the Network Management System, managed devices, and agents (usually software based). SNMP also uses UDP to send its messages, but that is not a component. 44. Which processor level cache is the fastest? A. L0 B. L1 C. L2 D. L3 B. Currently, there are three level caches installed inside a processor. Of the three, the L1 cache is the fastest. L1 is also the smallest of the three caches. The L3 cache is the slowest, but the largest of the three caches and the L2 cache is in the middle of both speed and capacity. 45. The company backs up data using Full backup on Sunday night at 11pm. On weekdays and Saturday, the company backs up data using Differential backups at 6pm. The server crashes Thursday afternoon. How many backups are required to fully restore the server? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four B. Two backups are required to restore the data on the server. The first backup is the full backup made on Sunday night. The next backup is the differential backups made on Tuesday. 46. Which RAID array can manage multiple drive failure? A. RAID 0. B. RAID 1. C. RAID 5. D. RAID 6. D. RAID 6 is capable of handling multiple drive failure because it write two parity stripes on each drive in the array for each pass. RAID 0, 1, and 5 cannot handle multiple drive failure. RAID 1 and 5 can tolerate failure in one drive. RAID 0 is not fault tolerant at all. 47. What is the minimum number of drives in a RAID 6 array? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 C. The minimum number of drives in a RAID 6 array is 4 drives. RAID 6 cannot be configured with 2 or 3 drives. While RAID 6 can handle 5 drives, it is not the minimum number of drives it can handle. 48. The backup application running on the server reports an error. What is the most likely cause? A. The application is not working. B. The network is down. C. Incremental backup was selected instead of differential backup. D. The backup tape is damaged. D. The only possible answer is that the backup tape is damaged. Since the application is running on the server, the application is working. The network being down has no bearing on the status of the backup application. Selecting the incorrect backup method does not cause the backup application to report an error. 49. Which server is best suited for patch and update deployment testing? A. Production server. B. Mission-critical server. C. Virtual server. D. Stand-alone server. C. The server best suited to be used for patch and update deployment testing is the virtual server. The production server and mission-critical server should not be used to test patches and updates. A stand-alone server could be used if it was not a production server or mission-critical server. 50. When upgrading an internal file server, what is the first thing an administrator should do? A. Call the ISP. B. Notify the users. C. Reboot the server. D. Reinstall the OS. B. When downtime is required to upgrade a server, the users should be notified as soon as possible. Ideally, the upgrade should be schedule during non-peak hours, however, if that is not possible users need to be notified immediately. Calling the ISP will not help as the ISP does not care about another organization's internal network. Rebooting the server will not help as it would mean a loss of service for users. Reinstalling the OS will not help as it too will mean a loss of service for users. 51. Which backup types will reset the archive bit? (Choose two.) A. Full backup B. Incremental backup C. Differential backup D. Copy backup E. Daily backup A, B. The two backup methods that reset the archive bit are full backup and incremental backup. Differential, copy and daily backup do not reset the archive bit. 52. For users to access the Internet, which DHCP settings must be configured? (Choose two.) A. WINS server B. Default gateway C. Subnet mask D. Lease time E. Domain name$$ 52. B, C. For users to successfully access the Internet, the subnet mask and default gateway settings must be configured correctly. The hosts need to be on the same network as the default gateway and the hosts need to know where to forward packets destined for the Internet. 53. An administrator wants to configure RAID to use striping. He has three hard drives. Two has 200GB and one has 250GB of unallocated space. What will be the size of the stripe set? A. 200 GB B. 450 GB C. 600 GB D. 700 GB B. Striping is RAID 0. When RAID is used the size used in all hard drives is the size of the smallest capacity drive. In this question, the smallest drives are 200GB. Therefore, in the third drive, only 200GB of the 250GB are used. 3 x 200GB = 600GB. 54. How can the issue of excessive page file writes be resolved? A. Install another NIC. B. Upgrade the CPU. C. Install another hard drive. D. Install more RAM. D. Excessive page writes are a symptom of insufficient RAM. By installing more RAM, the number of page writes should decrease dramatically. Installing another NIC or hard drive will not help. Upgrading the CPU will not decrease the number of page writes. 55. Which expansion slot has the highest bandwidth? A. PCI B. AGP C. ISA D. PCI-e x16 D. The transfer speed of PCI-e x16, assuming version 1.x, is 4000 MBps. The maximum PCI transfer speed is 533 MBps. The maximum transfer speed of AGP is 2133 MBps. The transfer speed of ISA does not compare to PCI, AGP or PCI-e. 56. During a power outage, some files were corrupted on the file server. Which is most likely the cause? A. RAID controller battery depleted. B. Faulty RAM. C. Hard drive is malfunctioning. D. The network connection is not fault tolerant. A. The most like cause is the RAID controller battery being depleted. There is a cache on the RAID controller that stores the information that is to be written on the hard drive. This cache is backed up by a battery so if an outage occurs, the cache remains preserved. With no charge in the battery, the files become corrupted. 57. B. The Grandfather, Father, Son backup is best described as Monthly, Weekly, and Daily. 57. An organization uses the Grandfather, Father, Son backup scheme. What best describes this backup? D. 700 GB$$ A. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Networks) are used to logically serparate subnets within a physical network. Spanning Tree Protocols is used to prevent loops in a switched network. Domain Name Service is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses. Simple Network Management Protocol is used to automate the management of network devices. 54. How can the issue of excessive page file writes be resolved? A. Install another NIC. B. Upgrade the CPU. C. Install another hard drive. D. Install more RAM. D. Excessive page writes are a symptom of insufficient RAM. By installing more RAM, the number of page writes should decrease dramatically. Installing another NIC or hard drive will not help. Upgrading the CPU will not decrease the number of page writes. 55. Which expansion slot has the highest bandwidth? A. PCI B. AGP C. ISA D. PCI-e x16 D. The transfer speed of PCI-e x16, assuming version 1.x, is 4000 MBps. The maximum PCI transfer speed is 533 MBps. The maximum transfer speed of AGP is 2133 MBps. The transfer speed of ISA does not compare to PCI, AGP or PCI-e. 56. During a power outage, some files were corrupted on the file server. Which is most likely the cause? A. RAID controller battery depleted. B. Faulty RAM. C. Hard drive is malfunctioning. D. The network connection is not fault tolerant. A. The most like cause is the RAID controller battery being depleted. There is a cache on the RAID controller that stores the information that is to be written on the hard drive. This cache is backed up by a battery so if an outage occurs, the cache remains preserved. With no charge in the battery, the files become corrupted. 57. An organization uses the Grandfather, Father, Son backup scheme. What best describes this backup? A. Grand, Full, Short B. Monthly, Weekly, Daily C. Full, Differential, Copy D. Yearly, Daily, Hourly 57. B. The Grandfather, Father, Son backup is best described as Monthly, Weekly, and Daily. 58. What technology can logically separate many subnets within one physical network? A. VLAN B. STP C. DNS D. SNMP. A. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Networks) are used to logically serparate subnets within a physical network. Spanning Tree Protocols is used to prevent loops in a switched network. Domain Name Service is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses. Simple Network Management Protocol is used to automate the management of network devices. 59. An administrator has six equal sized hard drives. Which RAID array will yield the maximum amount of useable disk space while keeping the array fault tolerant? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 C. RAID 5 will yield the maximum amount of usuable disk space while keeping the array fault tolerant. RAID 0 yields the maximum amount of disk space, however, the array is not fault tolerant. RAID 1 yields the lowest amount of usuable disk space. 60. Which of the following servers performs the same function as the HOSTS file? A. DHCP B. FTP C. DNS D. Print C. The HOSTS file is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses. The purpose of a DNS server is the same. 61. Which SCSI technology has a bus width of 16 bits and a clock of 20 MHz? A. Ultra SCSI B. Ultra Wide SCSI B. Ultra Wide SCSI has a bus width of 16 bits and a clock of 20 MHz. Anytime the word "Wide" is mentioned with SCSI, it means the bus width is 16-bit. C. Ultra 2 Wide SCSI D. Ultra 3 SCSI$$ B. Ultra Wide SCSI has a bus width of 16 bits and a clock of 20 MHz. Anytime the word "Wide" is mentioned with SCSI, it means the bus width is 16-bit. 62. Why is a baseline created? A. To configure RAID arrays. B. To provide for fault tolerance. C. To look at network utilization. D. To compare against normal and abnormal behaviour. D. A baseline is created for troubleshooting purposes. If there is a problem with the server later on, the baseline is used as a picture of what numbers indicate the server is running optimally. 63. What is the principle behind ACLs? A. Implicit permit. B. Implicit deny. C. Explicit permit. D. Explicit deny. B. The main principle behind access control lists is implicit deny. If the information passing through the access control list does not match any of the conditions, access is implicitly denied. This works for permissions and filtering packets. 64. What is the transfer speed of PCI with Bus Width of 32 bit and Frequency of 66 MHz? A. 133 MBps B. 266 MBps C. 400 MBps D. 533 MBps B. The transfer speed of PCI with Bus Width 32-bit and Frenquency 66 MHz is 266 MBps. The base transfer speed of PCI with Bus Width of 32-bit and Frequency 33 MHz is 133 MBps. For each time Bus Width or Frequency is double, the transfer speed is also doubled. 65. An administrator needs to restrict the traffic leaving the network. How can this best be accomplished? A. VLANs B. VTP C. ACLs D. DHCP$$ C. Access control lists can be used to restrict traffic leaving the network. VLANs can be used to logically segment the network within a physical network, but it cannot restrict traffic leaving the network. 66. What is an advantage of NTFS over FAT32? A. Encryption. B. Archive bit. C. Smaller maximum file size. D. Maximum capacity volume of 2TB. A. One of the advantages of NTFS over FAT32 is Encryption. Other advantages include compression, file level permissions, larger file size, and larger volume capacity. 67. Which technologies allow the sharing of processor in a safe manner for virtualization? A. VTP B. Virtual Master C. VT D. AMD-V E. Hyper-V C, D. VT and AMD-V allow the sharing of processor in a safe manner for virtualization. VT is Intel's implementation and AMD-V is AMD's implementation. 68. Which term identifies a socket type that requires no force to connect the CPU into the socket? A. ZIF B. HBA C. STP D. PBX A. Zero Insertion Force is the term that identifies a socket type that requires no force to connect the CPU into the socket. 69. What is the highest ID that can be assigned to a Wide SCSI bus? A. 0 B. 7 C. 15 D. 16$$ C. In a wide SCSI bus, the bus width is 16. Since SCSI IDs start from 0, the maximum ID in a wide SCSI bus is 15. 70. Which termination method uses resistors for short, low-speed single ended cables? A. Active termination B. Passive termnination C. Congruant termination D. Static termination$$ B. The passive termination method uses resistors for short, low-speed single ended cables. Active termination adds voltage regulators to resistors for more reliable termination. There is no such things as congruant termination or static termination. 71. What is most important when considering a data retention plan? A. Amount of money to spend. B. Company policy. C. Local laws and legal requirements. D. Amount of space to store backups. C. The most important consideration for a data retention plan are the local laws and legal requirements. If there are none, then the company policy is what dictates the data retention policy. 74. Which two are considerations in designing a HVAC system? (Choose two.) A. Temperature. B. Resistance. C. Water flow. D. Power consumption. E. Humidity. A, E. The two considerations when designing a HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning) system are temperature and humidity. Resistance, water flow, and power consumption are not considerations. 75. Which of the following can be referred to as WORM media? A. CD-R B. DVD-RW C. SATA hard drive D. SD Card A. Write Once Read Many media is as it sounds. It can only be written to one time, and read many times. In this list, the only WORM media is the CD-R. The other media can be erased and written to more than once. 76. Which of the following allows for the restoration of the most data? A. System restore point B. Full backup C. Incremental backup D. Differential backup B. The full backup allows for the restoration of the most data. The system restore point backs up only the system state. The incremental backup only backs up files since the last full or incremental backup. The differential backup backs up files since the last full or incremental backup. 77. Which file system is native to Windows? A. ZFS B. EXT3 C. NFS D. NTFS D. The file system that is native to Windows is NTFS. ZFS is Java proprietary. EXT3 is a Linux file systems. NFS is a Novell file system. 78. What is the best method to remove dust buildup inside a server case? A. Water. B. Broom. C. Can of compressed air. D. Vacuum cleaner. C. The best thing to use to remove dust build up in a server case is a can of compressed air. Water is not good for electric components. Using a broom can damage the circuits inside the server. A vacuum cleaner can generate static discharge that can severely damage 81. A fire occurs in a server room. What is the first thing that needs to be done? A. Evacuate all personnel. B. Notify users of service disruption. C. Escalate the problem. D. Nothing. Continue working. A. The number one priority is always the safety of personnel. In an emergency, personnel must be evacuated. 82. What is an advantage of server virtualization? A. Less servers to manage. B. More fault tolerant. C. Virtual servers cannot be hacked. D. Less hardware to manage. D. An advantage of server virtualization is less hardware to manage. While the number of physical servers is less, the number servers may not change at all. Server virtualization provides a single point of failure, the physical server or the host OS. Virtual servers can also be hacked like a physical server. 84. When installing SCSI devices in a server, what must be done? A. Terminate both ends of the chain. B. RAID must be configured. C. Redundant power supply needs to be attached. D. Only one end needs to be terminated. A. When installing SCSI devices in a server, both ends of the chain must be terminated. RAID does not need to be configured. A redundant power supply does not need to be attached the the SCSI chain. Both ends of the chain must be terminated, not just one end. 85. There is a problem with communication for the SCSI devices connected to the server. What is most likely the problem? A. RAID is not configured correctly. B. Termination is not correct. C. More RAM is needed. D. Too much electromagnetic interference. B. Whenever there is a problem with communication in a SCSI chain, it usually indicates a problem with termination. An incorrect RAID configuration will not cause a problem with communication in a SCSI chain. Adding more RAM to the server will not improve communication. 86. Which technology is used to ensure the CPU receives the appropriate voltage? A. Flux inhibitor. B. AC adapter. C. EEPROM. D. VRM. D. The Voltage Regulator Module provides the processor the appropriate supply of voltage. 87. Which key allows an administrator to see advanced startup options in a Windows environment? A. Del B. Alt+F4 C. F6 D. F8 D. The F8 key allows an administrator to see advanced startup options in the Windows environment. The Del key is used on most systems to enter the CMOS. The Alt+F4 combination is used in Windows to close windows. F6 is pressed during Windows setup to load third party drivers. 88. Which best describes the function of RAID 5? A. Striping. B. Striping with one distributed parity. C. Striping with two distributed parity. D. Striping and mirroring. B. RAID 5 can be best described as striping with one distributed parity. RAID 0 is striping. RAID 6 is striping with two distributed parity. RAID 0+1 is striping and mirroring. 89. A server cannot boot into the operating system. Which diagnostic tool is best suited for this issue? A. POST messages. B. System logs. C. Debug logs. D. Self-sealing stem bolts. A. Since the system cannot boot into the OS, an administrator needs to rely on the POST message. System logs and debug logs are only available if the OS can be loaded. 90. Which server would run SQL? A. Print server. B. File server. C. Database server. D. Web server. C. SQL is a databasing tool. Therefore, a database server would run SQL. A print server, file server or web server will not SQL. Although, in some cases a web server can run a databasing tool, it would still be considered a web server. 91. An administrator needs to maintain 2TB of useable storage space for a server. Which RAID configuration should be used? A. RAID 0 with four 500GB hard drives. B. RAID 1 with six 500GB hard drives. C. RAID 5 with four 500GB hard drives. D. RAID 6 with five 500GB hard drives. A. The only configuration that yields 2TB of useable storage space for the server is the RAID 0 configuration. The RAID 1, 5, and 6 configurations will only yield 1.5TB of useable space. 92. Which RAID solution will provide performance and fault tolerance without the use of parity? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 10 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6$$ B. The only RAID solution listed that provides fault tolerance without using parity is RAID 10. RAID 0 does not use parity, but it is not fault tolerant. RAID 5 and 6 both use parity. 93. After upgrading a driver for a hard drive in Windows, the server does not boot into the OS. Which of the following is the best way to resolve the issue? A. Reinstall Windows. B. Remove the hard drive. C. Restore the latest backup. D. Boot the server, press F8 and select Last Known Good Configuration. D. To resolve the issue, boot the server, press F8 and select Last Known Good Configuration. The computer will load the last configuration that booted successfully before the driver update. 95. Which storage system can be connected to many network servers through an iSCSI connection? A. SATA B. SAS C. NAS D. SAN D. The SAN storage system can be connected to many network servers through an iSCSI connection. Storage Area Network is a specialized network and can be connected through the Internet. iSCSI sends SCSI commands through TCP/IP. 96. Users can access network resources but cannot access the Internet. Which command line interface command can be used to identify the point of failure on the network? A. ipconfig B. nslookup C. tracert D. route C. Using tracert can help determine if the problem is isolated on an organization's network or if the problem is outside the organization. 97. What is the correct term for a virtual machine? A. Host OS B. Guest OS C. Hyper-V D. VTP B. The correct term for a virtual machine is a guest OS. Host OS is the term for the OS that is used to run the virtual machines. Hyper-V is a feature in Windows Server 2008 64bit to run virtual machines. 98. What happens if the maximum rated load on a UPS is exceeded during an outage? A. Nothing. B. The UPS will reboot the server until more power is available. C. The UPS will explode. D. The runtime of the UPS will be minimal. [Show More]

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