CIS MISC Consolidated 10 days questions

Day 01 Questions 1. Which of the following command used to open system properties? a. Sysdm.cpl b. Sconfig.cmd c. Ncpa.cpl d. Sysdm.cmd 2. Which of the following command is used to open network connections? a. Sys ...

Day 01 Questions 1. Which of the following command used to open system properties? a. Sysdm.cpl b. Sconfig.cmd c. Ncpa.cpl d. Sysdm.cmd 2. Which of the following command is used to open network connections? a. Sysdm.cpl b. Ncpa.cpl c. Ncpa.cmd d. None of the above 3. What is a computer program that provides a service to another computer program? a. Server b. Data Center c. Operating System d. Software Driver 4. Which acts as a central processing device between computer hardware and applications? a. Operating system b. Software Driver c. Hard Disk d. None of the above 5. The hypervisor is used to? a. Create memory space b. Create virtual machines c. Store data d. None of the above 6. The physical server consists of the following? a. Memory b. Network c. Storage resources and processor d. All of the above 7. Select one or more are the following are the examples of types of servers ? a. Tower servers b. Rack servers c. Blade servers d. Data servers 8. what is the full form of DRAC? Dell Remote Access Control 9. Which of the following network connects two countries or states? a. LAN b. WAN c. MAN d. LWAN 11. What is the starting valid IP address of class-A? a. 10.0.0.0 b. 10.0.0.1 c. 10.255.255.255 d. None of the above 12. What are the new features of Windows Server 2012 R2? a. Work Folders b. Storage spacesc. Data Duplication d. All of the above 13. What is the minimum hard disk drive space to install windows server 2012 R2? a. 32 GB b. 16 GB c. 512 MB d. 4 GB 14. What are the types of computer network media we have? a. Wired b. Wireless c. Copper Wires d. All of the above 15. Repeater is used to? a. Regenerate a signal b. Network transmission c. To connect two computers d. None of the above 16. ------------ cable is used to transfer more speed of internet i.e upto 1000 mbps. a. Coaxial cable b. Copper wires c. Twisted pair cable d. Fiber optic cable 17.Which of the following paths is a valid upgrade path to Windows Server 2012 R2? A. Windows Server 2003 Standard to Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard B. Windows Server 2008 Standard to Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard C. Windows Server 2008 32-bit to Windows Server 2012 R2 64-bit D. Windows 7 Ultimate to Windows Server 2012 R2 Essentials 18.Which of the following terms is the name of the directory where Windows stores all the operating system modules it might need to install at a later time? A.Windows B. System32C. Bit D. WinSxS 19.Which of the following NIC teaming modes provides fault tolerance and bandwidth aggregation? A. Hyper-V live migration B.Switch Independent Mode C.Switch Dependent Mode D.Link Aggregation Control Protocol 20.Which of the following command-line tools are used to join a computer to a domain?A.Net.exe B.Netsh.exe C.Netdom.exe D.Ipconfig.exe 21.Which of the following operations can you not perform on a service by using Server Manager? (Choose all that apply.) A.Stop a running service B.Start a stopped service C.Disable a service D.Configure a service to start when the computer starts 22.A device which is used to boost the signal between two cable segments or wireless access points is a) Booster b) Repeater c) Switch d) Router 23.A device that helps prevent congestion and data collisions – a) Switch b) Hub c) Gateway d) Proxy Server 24.Which of the following was the IBM Token bus? a) IEEE 802.10 b) IEEE 802.11 c) IEEE 802.1 d) IEEE 802.4 25.Which of the following is correct about hardware RAID controllers? a) Volume management is performed by the server b) Volume management is performed by controller card c) Dedicated cache memory decreases server write performance d) Parity calculation by the server and cache memory in the RAID controller increases read and write performance26.Which RAID type doesn’t use parity for data protection? a) RAID 1 b) RAID 4 c) RAID 6 d) RAID 5 27.Which one of these is characteristic of RAID 5? a) Distributed parity b) No Parity c) All parity in a single disk d) Double Parity 28.Which of the following combinations can support RAID 05? a) 2 sets with 3 disks each b) 3 sets with 2 disks each c) 2 sets with 4 disks each d) 4 sets with 1 disk each 29.Which of the following raid levels provides maximum usable disk space? a) RAID 1 b) RAID 0 c) RAID 5 d) RAID 6 30.The mean time to failure of a single disk is 200000 hrs. If an array of disks is using 5 such disks, the mttf of the array is a) 200000 hrs b) 40000 hrs c) 1000000 hrs d) Can not be determined 31.An array of disks is more likely to fail compared to a single disk. How is it that RAID arrays still manage to provide more data protection compared to a single disk? a) Using either mirroring or striping b) Using either mirroring or parity c) Using better quality disks d) Using dedicated hardware 32.This is a way of storing the data in different places on same/different storage. By doing so I/O operations can overlap in a balanced way, improving performance and providing fault tolerance a) RAID b) RAITc) Both RAID and RAIT d) None of the mentioned 33.This is a method of reducing storage needs by eliminating redundant data a) Data snapshot b) Data De-duplication c) Data compression d) Data encryption 34.This is the pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console. a) Server Provisioning b) Data mining c) Disk/Tape virtualization d) None of the mentioned 35.If all devices are connected to a central hub, then topology is called A. Bus Topology B. Ring Topology C. Star Topology D. Tree Topology 36.The …………….. elements are specialized computers to connect two or more transmission lines. A Networking B Broadcasting C Switching D None of the above 37.To use a …………………. network service, the service user first establishes a connection, uses the connection, and terminates the connection. A connection-oriented B connection-less C service-oriented D None Of The Above 38.You are administering a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2 configured as a print server. Users in the Marketing group report that they cannot print documents using a printer on the server. You view the permissions in the printer’s properties. The Marketing group is allowed Manage Documents permission. Which of the following statements best explains why the users cannot print to the printer? A. The Everyone group must be granted the Manage Documents permission. B. The Administrators group must be granted the Manage Printers permission. C. The Marketing group must be granted the Print permission. D. The Marketing group must be granted the Manage Printers permission. 39.Which of the following tasks must you perform before you can manage a remote server running Windows Server 2012 R2 using the Computer Management snap-in? A. Enable WinRM on the remote server. B. Enable the COM+ Network Access rule on the remote server.C. Enable the Remote Event Log Management rules on the remote server. D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on the remote server 40.Which of the following types of server virtualization provides the best performance for high-traffic servers in production environments? A.Type I virtualization B.Type II virtualization C.Presentation virtualization D.RemoteApp 41.Firmware is stored in ? A. RAM B.Cache C. ROM D. Hard Disk 42.The software substituted for hardware and stored in ROM. a) Synchronous Software b) Package Software c) Firmware d) Middleware 43.Storage of firmware is ___________ a) Cache Memory b) RAM c) External d) ROM 45.A type of middleware that allows for between the built-in applications and the real-time OS? a) Firmware b) Database middleware c) Portals d) Embedded Middleware 46.The _______ calls certain procedures on remote systems and is used to perform synchronous or asynchronous interactions between systems. a) Procedure b) RPCc) Message Oriented d) DB 47.To improve the efficiency and performance of a driver you need to ___________ the driver. a. Uninstall b. Update c. Hide d. Use 48.The DOS command CD is used to _______________ a. Compress the disk b. Copy the files to the directory c. Copy the contents of more than one directory at a time and retain the directory structure d. Change the Directory 49 An administrator is provided _______ tokens. a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four 50.______ allows you to configure firewall settings from the Command prompt. a. Windows Firewall with Advanced Settings b. Netsh Utility c. Group Policy Object Editor d. Windows Server Update Services 51.Computers using various operating systems on a network should have the same ________ to enable sharing over the network. a. File system b. Workgroup name c. Shared folder d. Computer name Day 02 Questions 1.Which of the following statements about Server Manager is not true?  A. Server Manager can deploy roles to multiple servers at the same time. B. Server Manager can deploy roles to VHDs while they are offline.  C. server Manager can install roles and features at the same time.  D. Server Manager can install roles and features to any Windows Server 2012 R2 server on the network. 2.Which of the following operations can you not perform on a service by using Server Manager? (Choose all that apply.)  A Stop a running service  B. Start a stopped service  C. Disable a service  D. Configure a service to start when the computer starts 3.What is the maximum number of shadow copies a Windows Server 2012 R2 system can maintain for each volume?  A. 8  B. 16  C. 64  D. 28 5.In the Windows Server 2012 R2 NTFS permission system, combinations of advanced permissions are also known as ____________ permissions. (Choose all that apply.)  A. Special  B. Basic  C. Share  D. Standard 6.Which of the following network components are typically capable of functioning as DHCP relay agents?  A. Windows 8.1 computers  B. Routers C. Switches  D. Windows Server 2012 R2 computers 7.which of the following is not one of the software restriction rule types supported by Windows Server 2012 R2?  A. Hash rules  B. Certificate rules  C. Path rules  D. Firewall rules 8.What are the four editions of Windows Server 2012? A. Windows Server 2012 Advanced B. Windows Server 2012 Data center C. Windows Server 2012 Essentials D. Windows Server 2012 Foundation E. Windows Server 2012 Itanium F. Windows Server 2012 Standard 9. How much RAM does Windows Server 2012 support? A • 1TB B • 2TB C • 4TB D • 8TB E • 16TB F • 32TB 10. Which editions of Microsoft Windows Server 2012 support the Server Core installation option? A• Windows Server 2012 Advanced B• Windows Server 2012 Data center C• Windows Server 2012 Essentials D• Windows Server 2012 Foundation E• Windows Server 2012 Standard11. What PowerShell command would you use to establish a PowerShell session with a remote computer? A• Enter-Session -credential B• Enter-PSSession -credential C• Enter-PSSession -user D• Enter-SSH -credential 12. After an upgrade to Windows Server 2012, is it possible to uninstall Windows Server 2012 and revert back to the old operating system version? A• Yes B• No 13. What PowerShell cmdlet would you use to enable Remote Desktop connections to the server? A• Set Remote Desktop -Enable B• Set Remote-Desktop -Enable C• Set-Remote-Desktop -Enable D• Set-Remote Desktop -Enable 14.What is the command for server core A. sconfig.cmd B. svconfig.cmd C. svrconfig.cmd D. scon.cmd 15.Server core is the default installation option for windows server 2012 is A. windows 2012 B. windows server 2012 C. windows 10 D. windows server 2007 16.What are the windows server 2012 features A. Components that support the server such as windows server backup or fail overing clustering B. do not provide a service directly to clients on the network C. provide a service directly to clients on the network 17. Windows Server 2012 R2 deployment method options include A. Optical disk B. USB flash driveC. windows deployment services D. All the above 18.You have decided to install windows server 2012 by choosing the service core installation option. If you want to install, configure or uninstall server roles remotely, what tool would you use? a) Windows Power Shell b) Any of these c) Server Manager d) Remote Server Adminstration Tools (RSAT) 19.When you install Windows Server 2012, you can choose between server core installation and server with a GUI… which option would reduce the potential attack surface and servicing requirements? a) Server Core installation b)Server with a GUI c)Itanium based d)None of the above Day 03 Questions 1.IOPS stands for input/output operations per second. 2.SCSI performance is around a)50iops b)100iops c)150iops d)200iops 3.SSD Stands for? a) stationary state drive b) solid state drive c) software state drive d)none of the above4.partition is a defined storage space on a hard drive. 5.logical drive comes under which partition? a)primary b)extended c)both a&b d)none of the above 6.what are the tools to manage partitions? a) disk management-GUI b)diskpart.exe-CLI c)both d) none of d above 7. Primary partition is needed to store and boot the operating system. 8.computer will not boot when there are more than one primary partition is set active. 9.which partition can't be formatted or assigned? a) primary b) extended c)logical d) none of the above 10.An extended partition contains 24 logical partitions. 11.which is physically attached to server? a)DAS b)NAS c)SAS d)both a&b 12.NAS stands for network attached storage. 13. Which storage type is expensive? a)DAS b)NAS c)SAN d)none 14.RAID provides fault tolerance by using ? a) disk mirroring b) parity info. c) partitioningd) all of d above 15.RAID 0 not used for mission critical systems. 16.what is RAID level 5? a) mirroring b) striping c) stripping with parity d) mirroring with parity 17.In raid 5 parity data are not written to a fixed drive. 18.extra cache memory is used in Raid5 in order to improve? a) read Performance b) write performance c) read & write Performance d) all of the above 19.which is complex in technology? a) mirroring b) striping c) stripping with parity d) stripping with dual parity 20. Rebuilding time is very fast in ? a) raid 0 b) raid 1 c) raid 5 d) raid 10 21.MBR stands for master boot record. 22.MBR is a standard partition table format since? a) 1975 b)1980 c)1985 d)1990 23.which supports more number of Partitions per drive? a)gpt b)nas C)das d)mbr24.what can be used for 3.5tb ? a)mbr b)nas C)gpt d)none Answer: c 25.basic disks are default storage for operating system. 26.which of following is developed for flash drives? a)fat b) exfat c) fat32 d)ntfs 27.which file system provides metadata ? a)refs b)fat32 c)ntfs d)exfat 28.NTFS stands for new technology file system. 29.which provides error correction? a)ntfs b)fat c)refs d)fat 30.cluster size in refs file system 16kb. 31.what is reference to a location on a disk that enables access to disk resources? a)new volume b) partitions c)mount point d)none 32. Link file contains reference to another file or directory. 33.which of the following can be resized? a)fat b) exfat c) fat32d)none of the above 34. What is vhdx? a) virtual disk b) hyper-V VHD c) both a&b d) none of the above 35.can we use VHD for deployment technology? a)yes b)no 36.virtual disk can be created with disks from the storage pool. 37. Disk sector size ? a)512kb b) 128kb c) 512mb d)512byte 38.what should be done for disk failure? a) use Chkdsk b) scan disk c) remove drive d)add new one 39.power shell command to remove a physical disk from a storage pool Reset-PhysicalDisk. 40.power shell command to list storage pools? a)list-Storagepool b)show-Storagepool c)Get-Storagepool d)both a&c 41.A piece of software that tells operating system and other software how to communicate with a piece of hardware? a) DNS b) flash drives c) device driver d) none of the above 42.device manager is used to manage the hardware devices. 43.which is used to revert the device that was previously using?a)back driver b) revert driver c)roll back driver d) none of the above 44.Disk management allows ? a) change drive letter and paths b) extend partition C) create virtual disk d)all of the above 45.SCSI Stands for Small Computer System Interface. Q1:- Whom does offline files feature allow to cache network files locally for offline use when they are disconnected from network. a-Client b- server c- admin d- all of above. Q2:- With which option we can access offline setting window in advanced sharing tab. a-Caching b- enumeration. Q3:- What is the default permission of inheritance. a- Parent/child b- Admin Q4:- Which blocking inheritance you can block. a-permission inheritance b-file or folder level c-all of the above. Q5:- While combining file system and shared folder permission which permission will be applied? a-most restrictive permission. Q6:- If user does not have both file system and shared folder permission what will happen? a- Denied access to the resource. Day-4 Questio nsb- Access to file c- None of the above. Q7:- Which feature allows an administrator to control visibility of shared folder according to permission set on shared folder. a- access based numeration b- bit locker. Q8:- Access based numeration is built into. a- Windows vista b- Windows server 2012 c- Window 8. Q9:- Which feature allow to access previous version od files. a-Shadow copies b-access based enumeration c -properties. Q10:- Shadow copies are based on? a- Tracking disk changes Q11:- What happen when space is full in shadow copying? a-older shadows are removed. b-older shadows move to other drive. Q12:- Shadow copying not suitable for? a-replacement of backup. b-recovery of data base. c-both a,b. Q13:- Factors to considered while creating shadow copying schedule? a-capacity of server b-frequency of changes. c-importance of changes. d-all of above Q14:-From where we can access previous version of files? a-properties b-Details. Q15:- What are file management techniques? a-quotas b-file screen.c-reporting d-classification e-all of the above. Q16:-Work folders only work on? a-Windows server 2012 b-windows 8.1 c-windows vista d-windows 7. Q17. BiT locker is available in the __operating system. A. Mac B. Linux C. windows D .Android Q18. Bit locker encrypts__ A .Disk drives B. Email C. Text messages D .Bios Q19 .Bit locker leverages __a chipset-level encryption tool offered on windows Vista and later operating systems. A .Temporary Platform Module (TPM) B. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) C. Trusted Protection Module (TPM) D. Trust Platform Machine (TPM) Q20. What is the Standard NTFS permission needed to change attribute of a NTFS folder? A. read B. Write c. Fully control D. modify Q21. When you are looking at NTFS permission that are grayed out ,it means that you don’t have the permission needed to modify the NTFS permission. A True B .FalseQ22.A user has created a network shared and assigned the share and NTFS permission to full control and read & execute .what level of access will users have when accessing the network share? A. you can encrypt and compress a file within NTFS at the same time . B. No access c. Read and execute Q23. What is the minimum share permission that allow you to change file and folder permission? A. read B. change C. manage D. full control Q24. Which of the following is the feature of NTFS? A . Disk quotas B. ACL C. File level encryption D. all of the above Q25. In Shared Folder ,folder can be shared but individual files can not ? A. True B. False Q26. Maximum file size of NTFS is ? A.2 terabyte B.3 terabyte C.3terabyte Q27. ACL Stands for ? A . Access control language B. Access central list C. Access control list Q28. Who can apply or set NTFS permission? A. user B. Group C .Administrator Day 05 Questions1.Which layer of TCP/IP use SMTP a) Presentation b) Transport c) Application d) Network 2.Which is not a part of Application layer protocol a) FTP b) POP3 c) IP d) HTTPS 3.Socket is a not a combination of a) IP Address b) Port c) Domain d) Transport Protocol 4.Each IPv4 contain A) Network ID B) Host ID a) Only A b) Only B c) Both A & B d) Neither A Nor B 5.Default Gateway defines the a) First valid IP b) Host IP c) Subnet Maskd) Preferred Router 6.Which is not a function of Private IP a) Not routable on internet b) Can be assigned locally c) Must be globally unique d) Must be translated to access internet 7.IP address in binary have a) Dotted Decimal Notation b) Eight bit octet c) Highest order bit represents Decimal Value of 128 d) All the above 8.Which of these will have largest network a) Class A(/8) b) Class B(/16) c) Class C(/25) d) Class C(/24) 9.By using subnet, you can a) single network address across multiple location b) Increase security by using firewall c) Both a and b d) none of the above 10.Ipv6 over ipv4 tunnelling allows ipv6 to communicate through ___________ network a. Ipv6 b. Ipv4 c. Both a and b d. None of the above 11.Teredo is an automatic tunnelling technique. In each client the obfuscated iPv4 address is represented by bits ______ a) 96 to 127 b) 0 to 63c) 80 to 95 d) 64 to 79 12.The main reason for transition from IPv4 to IPv6 is _________ a) Huge number of systems on the internet b) Very low number of system on the internet c) Providing standard address d) To provide faster internet Q13. Default network mask for CLASS B is : Ans. A) 255.0.0.0 B) 255.255.0.0 C) 255.255.255.0 D) 255.255.255.255 Q14. Windows PowerShell Command used as an alternative for ‘Telnet’ command-line : A) Test-NetConnection-Traceroute B) Test-NetConnection C) Test-NetConnection-Port D) Get-NetIPAddress Q15. We use ‘tracert’ command to : Ans. A) Verify if the network configuration is correct B) See if the remote host responds C) See if the remote gateway responds D) Identify the network path between hosts Q15. What is the correct order for Microsoft Message Analyzer to perform a network analysis task? A) View Message Data B) Save Message Data C) Filter Message Data D) Capture Message Data E) Create Charts from Captured Data F) Import Message Data Ans. A) C, A, F, D, B, E B) D, B, F, A, C, E C) F, B, C, D, E, A D) A, C, E, D, F, B Q16. The size of an IP Address in IPv6 is : Ans. A) 4 bytes B) 8 bytes C) 100 bits D) 128 bits Q17. Which statement(s) about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are true? i) An IPv6 address is 32 bits long, represented in hexadecimal. ii) An IPv4 address is 32 bits long, represented in decimal. iii) An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in decimal. iv) An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in hexadecimal. Ans. A) 1 and 3 onlyB) 2 only C) 3 and 4 D) 2 and 4 Q18. What character are used to express a string of zeros inside of a IPv6 address? A) # B) // C) :: D) & Q19. Which among the following features is present in IPv6 but not in IPv4? A) Fragmentation B) Anycast address C) Header checksum D) Options Q20. Which of the following is true when describing a unicast address? A) Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. B) These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like a regular publicly routable address in IPv4. C) These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed. D) These addresses are meant for non-routing purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap. Q21. Which of the following is true when describing an anycast address? A) Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. B) Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called one-to-many addresses. C) This address identifies multiple interfaces and the anycast packet is only delivered to one address. This address can also be called one-to-one-of-many. D) These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap. Q22. In IPv6 addresses, the addresses start with eight 0s are called : A) Unicast addresses B) Multicast addresses C) Anycast addresses D) Reserved addresses Q23.Determine the correct order of steps for ‘Address autoconfiguration for IPv6’ : A) Check the router for prefixes B) Derive a link-local address C) Add prefixes D) Check for router on the network E) Check for address conflicts by using neighbour solicitation F) If managed or other flag set, check DHCPv6 Ans. A) C, A, F, D, B, E B) B, E, D, A, C, F C) F, B, C, D, E, A D) A, C, E, D, F, B Q24. Which of these is NOT required for the DNS records for coexistence : A) Host (A) resource records for IPv4 nodes B) Reverse lookup pointer (PTR) resource records for IPv4 and IPv6 nodes C) IPv6 host (AAAA) resource records D) Host (B) resource records for IPv6 nodesDay 06 Questions 1.What is DAS? a. Drive Attached Server b. Direct Attached Storage c. Direct Attached Server 2. _______ abstracts storage management from the server and the virtual machine images can be managed as a file system. a. NAS b.DAS c. SAN 3. _______ storage provides synchronous replication. a.NAS b.DAS c.SAN 4.RAID stands for a. Redundant Array of Independent Drives b. Rearrange Array of Independent devices c. none of the above 5. In which system data are split up into blocks that get written across all the drives in the array? a. RAID 1 b. RAID 0 c. RAID 5 6. In which the parity data is written to two drives. a. RAID 5 b. RAID 6 c.RAID 1 7. Which are highly scalable both from capacity and performance perspective. a. NAS b. SAN c. DAS 8. NAS Stands for a. Network Attached Serverb. Network Attached storage c. none of the above 9. The Maximum number of Primary Partitions supported per drive in MBR a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 10. NTFS provides a. Meta data b. Security c. all of the above 11. _______ is a reference to a location on a disk that enables windows operating system access to disk resources. a. Disk b. Mount point c. VHD 12. In MBR the disk can be partitioned up to a. 1 TB b. 2TB c. 512 GB 13. The maximum number of Primary Partitions supported per drive in GPT a. 254 b. 100 c. 128 14. In GPT the disk can be partitioned up to a. 10 TB b. 18 EB c. Unlimited 15. You can resize _______ volumes from the windows operating system, beginning with windows vista and windows server 2008. a. Refs b. Ntfs c. FAT 16. _________ are files that you can use like physical hard disks.a. VHD b. Drive c. Disk 17. Benefits of network printing include a. simplified troubleshooting b. lower total costs c. Both a and b 18. Enhanced point and print uses the _____ driver model to provide a simplified management structure for network printer drivers. a. V2 b. V4 c. V5 19. ___________ that combines multiple physical printers to a single logical unit. a. Printer Pooling b. Network Printing c. Direct printing 20. You can deploy printers to clients by using a. Group Policy Preferences b. Automatic Installation c. none of the above 21. Which command is used to open the disk? (A)Diskpart.exe (B)Compmgmt.msc (C)Diskmgmt.msc (D)ncpa.cpl 22. RAID is a technology that is (A)used to decrease the performance (B)used to increase the performance (C)used to reliability of data storage (D)both b and c 23. RAID1 is also called as (A)Mirroring (B)Striping with parity (C)Striping (D)Combining mirroring and striping24. What is the disadvantage of RAID0 (A)the technology is easy to implement (B)RAID0 is a ideal for non-critical storage of data (C)RAID0 is not fault-tolerant (D)if one drive fails, all data in the RAID0 array are lost 25. What are maximum drivers that we used in RAID1 array? (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 32 (D) 2 26. By which tools it can manage the partitions (A)Master Boot Record(MBR) (B)Disk Management-GUI (C)Diskpart.exe-CLI (D)Disk Boot Record(DBR) 27. What is the type of storage that provide higher availability with the most flexibility? (A)NAS (B)DAS (C)SAN (D)None of these 28. GPT supports (A)NTFS (B)ReFS (C)FAT (D)FAT32 29. The cluster size in NTFS is (A) 16KB (B) 32KB (C) 4KB (D) 64KB 30. ReFS support for (A)Larger files (B)Directories (C)Volumes (D)All the above 31. What are the benefits of network printing include (A)Lower total costs (B)Easier searching (C)Simplified troubleshooting (D)All the above 32. What is the most basic level of storage a) SANb) DAS c) NAS d) ISCSI 33.What’s the demerits of DAS ? a) Interconnect limited up to 10km b) Excessive network traffic c) Distance limitations and slow speed d) Distance limitations and Inability to share data with other servers 34.A NAS solution is most appropriate for what type of data environment a) Secured Access b) Shared access c) Remote access d) Parallel access 35. I/O requests to disk storage on a SAN are called a) File I/Os b) SAN I/Os c) Block I/Os d) Disk I/Os 36.Which topology is best suited for medium sized enterprise. a) NAS b) SAN c) DAS d) None of the mentioned 37.Disk controller driver in DAS architecture is replaced in SAN either with —— a) FC Protocol b) iSCSI c) TCP/IP stack d) Any one of the mentioned 38.Which storage technology requires downtime to add new hard disk capacity a) DAS b) SAN c) NAS d) None of the mentioned 39.In SAN storage model, the operating system view storage resources as —— devices a) FC b) SCSI c) SAN d) None of the mentioned 40.What are the benefits of network printing a)Simplified troubleshooting b)lower total costs c) easier searching d)all the above 41.Which RAID type doesn’t use parity for data protection? a) RAID 1 b) RAID 4 c) RAID 6 d) RAID 542.Which one of these is characteristic of RAID 5? a) Distributed parity b) No Parity c) All parity in a single disk d) Double Parity Day 07 Questions 1.Which of the following network components are typically capable of functioning as DHCP relay agents? A. Windows 8.1 computers B. Routers C. Switches D. Windows Server 2012 R2 computers 2.What are the two basic classes of Active Directory objects? A. Resource B. Leaf C. Domain D. Container 3.Which of the following does an Active Directory client use to locate objects in another domain? A. DNS B. Global CatLog C. DHCP D. Site Link 4.Which of the following utilities are used to perform an offline domain join? A. net join B. join C. djoin D. Dconnect 5.Which of the following is not a type of user account that can be configured in Windows Server 2012 R2?A. Local accounts B. Domain accounts C. Network accounts D. Built-in accounts 6.Which of the following are the two built-in user accounts created automatically on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2? A. Network B. Interactive C. Administrator D. Guest 7.Which of the following group scope modifications are never permitted? (Choose all that apply.) A. Global to universal B. Global to domain local C. Universal to global D. Domain local to universal 8.In a domain running at the Windows Server 2012 R2 domain functional level, which of the following security principals can be members of a global group? (Choose all that apply.) A. Users B. Computers C. Universal groups D. Global groups 9.Which of the following techniques can be used to apply GPO settings to a specific group of users in an OU? A. GPO linking B. Administrative templates C. Security filtering D. Starter GPOs 10.Which of the following statements best describes the function of a starter GPO?A. A starter GPO functions as a template for the creation of new GPOs B. A starter GPO is the first GPO applied by all Active Directory clients. C. A starter GPO uses a simplified interface for elementary users. D. A starter GPO contains all the settings found in the default Domain Policy GPO. 11.Which of the following are local groups to which you can add users with the Windows Control Panel? (Choose all that apply.) A. Users B. Power Users C. Administrators D. Non-Administrators 12. A —————— group is a group that contains the same users as an OU. A. Operation B. Administration C. Primary D. Shadow 13. ACL stands for Access Control List A. True B. False 14. AD DS is composed of __ & __ components Logical and physical components 15. Logical components are ____ A. Partitions B. Schema C. Domains D. Data Stores 16. Physical components are ____A. Domain Controllers B. Schema C. Domains D. Data Stores 17. Active Directory partitions are A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 18. Schema partitions contains A. Class schema B. Attribute schema C. Replication Topology D. Directory Objects 19. The Dsadd command –secgrp {yes | no} specifies group type: security (yes) or distribution (no). A. False B. True 20. LDIFDE is a defragment tool in all versions of Windows Server. A. False B. True 21. How do you create a group by using Active Directory Users and Computers snap- in? A. Left click the OU in Find which you want to create a group, select New, and choose Group. B. Right-click the OU in Find which you want to create a group, select New, and choose Group. C. This can only be done in the registry editor.D. You can create a group by typing MSCONFIG in the Run box. 22.There are two types of groups in Active Directory. A. True B. False 23. Find what default group has the right to log on locally, start and stop services, perform backup and restore operations, format disks, create or delete shares, and even power down domain controllers? A. Server Operators B. Schema Admins C. Enterprise Admins D. Backup Operators 24. How many group scopes are there in Active Directory? A. Three B. Zero C. Ten D. Five 25. Find what is the basic syntax for Dsrm? A. dsrm ObjectND.,,(subtree-(+exclude)) (+yesprompt) (*c) B. dsrm ObjectDN. noprompt – c C. dsrm ObjectDN…[-subtree [-exclude]] [-noprompt] [-c] D. dsrm ObjectN…. [-subtree [-exclude]] [noprompt] [c-] 26. Find which is not one of the four divisions or container structures in Active Directory? A. Forests B. Domain C. Webs D. Organizational units E. Sites 27.About how many settings are in a single Group Policy ObjectA. 1,800 B. 3,200 C. 900 D. 5,000 28. In Find what version of Windows did Microsoft adopt Kerberos as an authentication policy? A. Windows NT B. Windows Server 2003 R2 C. Windows Server 2000 D. Windows 2008 29. Active Directory and a Windows-based file server are not required to implement ________ on client Windows computers. A. Windows Registry B. Internet Explorer C. Windows 2000 D. Roaming user profile Day 08 Questions 1. A robust solution that helps users automate a range of tedious or time-consuming administrative tasks. A. Server manager module B. Windows powershell C. Organisational units D. Cmdlets ANS : B 2. A light weight command that typically exists as a small script that is intended to perform a single specific function such as coping files and changing directories in powershell environment ANS : CMDLET 3. The system administration cmdlets that allows the windows feature noun is A. service manager moduleB. process cmdlets C. windows powershell remote management D. eventlog cmdlets ANS : A 4. The system administration cmdlets called windows powershell remote management allows _______ A. Allows to manage active directory users B. Allows OU’s to group objects within a domain C. Allows cmdlets or scripts to run on remote computers D. Allows administrator to specify user’s settings ANS : C 5. Command for active directory administrative centre is A. adac.exe B. dsa.msc C. adac.msc D. dsac.exe ANS : A 6. To manage active directory users and computers the command we use is A. dsac.msc B. dsa.msc C. dsac.exe D. all of the above ANS : A 7. _______ are represented by a folder with a book on it A. GPO’s B. OU’s C. Containers D. Domains ANS : B 8. Containers that can be used to group objects within a domain in an active directory are called as A. DomainsB. Containers C. OU’s D. GPO’s ANS : C 9. Containers in OUs are represented by _______ folder ANS : Blank folder 10. To create an OU in an active directory the command we run is _____ A. adac.exe B. dsa.msc C. adac.msc D. dsac.exe ANS : B 11. The type of profile that can be used by the administrator to specify the user’s settings is A. Temporary user profile B. User user profile C. Mandatory user profile D. Roaming user profile ANS : C 12. _______ type of profiles are available only on computers running windows 2000 or later A. Local user profile B. Roaming user profile C. Mandatory user profile D. Temporary user profile ANS : D 13. The local user profile is stored in ______ type of storage device a) RAM b) SSD c) HDD d) External storage device ANS : HDD 14. ________ kind of groups are not security enabled and cannot be given permissions A. Universal groups B. Distribution groupsC. Security groups D. Global groups ANS : B 15. The type of group scope that can be assigned permissions to resources anywhere in the domain or a trusted domain is______ A. Universal B. Local C. Domain local D. Global ANS : D 16. _________ can be assigned permissions to the resources anywhere in the local domain only A. Local B. Domain local C. Global D. Universal ANS : B 17. Groups which collect members based on the member’s roles are A. Local B. Domain local C. Global D. universal ANS : C 18. _______groups can be used to assign permissions for access to resources in any domain and can be a member of universal and domain local groups in any domain A. Local B. Domain local C. Universal D. Global ANS : D 19. How do you create a group by using Active Directory Users and Computers snap- in?A. Left click the OU in Find which you want to create a group, select New, and choose Group. B. Right-click the OU in Find which you want to create a group, select New, and choose Group. C. This can only be done in the registry editor. D. You can create a group by typing MSCONFIG in the Run box ANS : B 20. Which of the following is true about an RODC installation? A. A Windows server running at least Windows Server 2012 is required. B. The forest functional level must be at least Windows Server 2003. C. Adprep /rodcprep must be run in Windows server 2008 forests. D. Another RODC must be available as a replication partner. ANS : A 21. Which of the following is the term for a DC in site that handles replication of a directory partition for that site? A. Inter-Site Topology Generator B. Knowledge Consistency Checker C. Bridgehead Server D. Global Catalog Server Ans : D 22. What command-line utility is required to create the domain controller installation media that includes a copy of the AD DS database so that you can use the Install From Media (IFM) option in the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard? A. Ifmdump.exe B. ntdsutil.exe C. adprep.exe D. dcdump.exe Ans : B 23. Which two command line tools can you use to provision a new Active Directory user account? A. Dsadd.exe B. ADadd.exe C. new-DSUser D. new-ADUser Ans : A & D 24. What is the correct name for GPO templates that you can use to create multiple GPOs with the same set of baseline Administrative Templates settings? A. Default GPOs B. Starter GPOs C. Template GPOs D. Local GPOsAns : B 25. What is the domain of the person represented by this Distinguished Name (DN)? cn=John Smith,ou=Sales,dc=example,dc=com A. example B. example.com C. com D. sales Ans : B 26. Which of the following is not a type of Group Policy Object? A. Local B. Nonlocal C. Security D. Starter Ans : C 27. A ——————group is a group that contains the same users as an OU. A. Operation B. Administration C. Primary D. Shadow Ans : D 28. If you make changes to an existing GPO that is already linked in Active Directory, how fast do the policy settings take effect? A. 50 seconds B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. As soon as the client downloads them Ans : D 29. How many settings are there in single Group Policy Object? A. 1,800 B. 3,200 C. 900 D. 5,000 Ans : A 30. For each GPO, there is a GPC container stored in the System\Policies folder in the __________. A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts console B. Active Directory GPO and Sites console C. Active Directory Users and Computers console D. Active Directory Group Policy consoleAns : C 31. Each GPT folder is identified by the ___________ for the GPO. A. GPCID B. GPTID C. GPID D. GUID Ans : D 32. Group Policy settings are divided into two categories: Computer Configuration settings and __________. A. Policy Configuration settings B. Organizational Configuration settings C. Group Configuration settings D. User Configuration settings Ans : D 33. In order to delegate permissions for a GPO, you must have the ___________ permission for the GPO. A. Edit user, context, menu B. Edit settings, delete, and modify security C. Edit group, delete, modify user D. none of the above Ans : B 34. In order to delegate permissions for a GPO, you must have the ___________ permission for the GPO. A. Edit user, context, menu B. Edit settings, delete and modify the security C. Edit group, delete, modify user D. none of the above Ans : B Active Directory Multiple Choice Questions with Answers:- 1. A ——————the group is a group that contains the same users as an OU. (Fill in the blank) A. Operation B. Administration C. Primary D. Shadow Ans:- D Day –9 Questio ns2. ACL stands for Access Control List A. True B. False Ans:- A 3. How do you create a group by using Active Directory Users and Computers snap- in? A. Left click the OU in Find which you want to create a group, select New, and choose Group. B. Right-click the OU in Find which you want to create a group, select New, and choose Group. C. This can only be done in the registry editor. D. You can create a group by typing MSCONFIG in the Run box. Ans:- B 4. LDIFDE is a defragment tool in all versions of Windows Server. A. False B. True Ans:- A 5. The Dsadd command –secgrp {yes | no} specifies group type: security (yes) or distribution (no). A. False B. True Ans:- B 6. Find what option can you use to prevent deleting a group in Windows Server 2008? A. You could prevent this by formatting the hard drive. B. You can prevent deleting a group by restarting the computer. C. Protect object from accidental deletion. D. Use /reboot to prevent deleting a group. Ans:- C 7. There are two types of groups in Active Directory. A. True B. False Ans:- A 8. Find what default group has the right to log on locally, start and stop services, perform backup and restore operations, format disks, create or delete shares, and even power down domain controllers? A. Server Operators B. Schema Admins C. Enterprise Admins D. Backup Operators Ans:- A 9. How many group scopes are there in Active Directory? A. Three B. Zero C. Ten D. Five Ans:- A 10. Find what is the basic syntax for Dsrm? A. dsrm ObjectND.,,(subtree-(+exclude)) (+yesprompt) (*c) B. dsrn ObjectDN. noprompt – c C. dsrm ObjectDN…[-subtree [-exclude]] [-noprompt] [-c] D. dsrm ObjectN…. [-subtree [-exclude]] [noprompt] [c-] Ans:- B 11. Find which is not one of the four divisions or container structures in Active Directory? A. Forests B. Domain C. Webs D. Organizational units E. Sites Ans:- C 12. Find what is a forest? A. Physical groupings are independent of the domain and OU structure. Sites distinguish between locations connected by low- and high-speed connections and are defined by one or more IP subnets. B. The collection of every object, its attributes and attribute syntax in the Active Directory. C. Containers in Find which domains can be grouped. They create a hierarchy for the domain and create the structure of the Active Directory’s company in geographical or organizational terms.D. A collection of computers that share a common set of policies, a name and a database of their members. Ans:- B 13. Find what do domain controllers do? A. Store the database, maintain the policies and provide the authentication of domain logons. B. Control granular settings in a domain environment. C. Receive and relay domain commands Ans:- A 14. Find what are Group Policy Objects? A. A set of folder rules that determine where Outlook will save email messages. B. Affords the capability for secure extension of network operations to the Web C. They determine the hierarchy of a domain, Find which can fit the operational structure of an organization. D. A collection of settings that define Find what a system will look like and how it will behave for a defined group of users. Ans:- D 15. In Windows Server 2012 and Windows 8, Group Policy Objects give administrators the ability to select new Internet Explorer policies. A. True B. False Ans:- A 16. Active Directory Rights Management Services is designed to give complete control of all documents stored in RMS-enabled applications. A. True B. False Ans:- B 17. According to Jonathan Hassell, Find what is a good practice to follow with forest trusts? A. Use shortcut trusts B. Keep a current list of all trust relationships in the forest C. Back up and ensure you have restore capability D. All of the above Ans:- D 18. According to Gary Olsen, domain controller load can be insufficient for the following reason(s): A. Inefficient LDAP queries can put an unpredictable load on DC. B. The number of authenticated clients is unpredictable because multiple DCs share the load for clients in and out of the site. C. Active Directory (AD) analysis and monitoring tools put additional load on the DC. D. A and C only E. A, B, and C Ans:- E 18. About how many settings are in a single Group Policy Object A. 1,800 B. 3,200 C. 900 D. 5,000 Ans:- A 19. In Find what version of Windows did Microsoft adopt Kerberos as an authentication policy? A. Windows NT B. Windows Server 2003 R2 C. Windows Server 2000 D. Windows 2008 Ans:- C 20. Between Sites, you can also choose to use ________ for replication, but only for changes in the Schema or Configuration. A. Internet Message Access Protocol B. Post Office Protocol C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol D. E-mail Ans:- C21. Active Directory and a Windows-based file server are not required to implement ________ on client Windows computers. A. Windows Registry B. Internet Explorer C. Windows 2000 D. Roaming user profile Ans:- D 22. Authentication across this type of trust is Kerberos based (as opposed to ________). A. LM hash B. NTLM C. Samba (software) D. Integrated Windows Authentication Ans:- B 23. Unlike earlier versions of Windows Find which used ________ to communicate, Active Directory is fully integrated with DNS and TCP/IP—indeed DNS is required. A. NetBIOS B. NetBIOS Frames protocol C. Server Message Block D. Ethernet Ans:- A 24. Another option is to use ________ with its translucent overlay, Find which can extend entries in any remote LDAP server with additional attributes stored in a local database. A. Mac OS X B. Berkeley DB C. Berkeley Software Distribution D. OpenLDAP Ans:- D 25. A different ‘cost’ can be given to each link (e.g., DS3, T1, ________, etc.) and the site link topology will be altered accordingly by the KCC. A. OSI model B. Integrated Services Digital Network C. Universal Serial Bus D. Physical Layer Ans:- B ACTIVE DIRECTORY Objective Type Questions pdf free Download:: 26. AGDLP (implementing ________ using nested groups) A. Mandatory access control B. Active Directory C. Microsoft SQL Server D. Role-based access control Ans:- D 27. Active Directory is a technology created by ________ that provides a variety of network services, including: A. Microsoft B. Internet Explorer C. Microsoft Office D. Microsoft Windows Ans:- A 28. ADAM is capable of running as a service, on computers running Microsoft ________ or Windows XP Professional. A. Windows Server 2003 B. Windows Server 2008 C. Windows 2000 D. Microsoft Windows Ans:- A 29. In ________, ADAM has been renamed AD LDS (Lightweight Directory Services). A. Microsoft Windows B. Windows Vista C. Windows Server 2008 D. Windows 2000 Ans:- C30. To Find which of the following Active Directory containers can Group Policies be applied? A. sites B. OUs C. domains D. all of the above Ans:- D 31. To create a GPO for a domain or an organizational unit, you use either the Active Directory Users and Computers console or the __________. A. Group Policy Maintenance console B. Domain Policy Management console C. Group Policy Management Console D. Active Directory Sites and Services console Ans:- C 32. For each GPO, there is a GPC container stored in the system policies folder in the __________. A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts console B. Active Directory GPO and Sites console C. Active Directory Users and Computers console D. Active Directory Group Policy console Ans:- C 33. Each GPT folder is identified by the ___________ for the GPO. A. GPCID B. GPTID C. GPID D. GUID Ans:- D 34. Group Policy settings are divided into two categories: Computer Configuration settings and __________. A. Policy Configuration settings B. Organizational Configuration settings C. Group Configuration settings D. User Configuration settings Ans:- D 35. Find which of the following containers contains all Registry-based Group Policy settings, including settings for Windows Components, System, and Network? A. Administrative Templates B. Software Templates C. Windows Templates D. Login Settings Ans:- A 36. Find which of the following is a function of the GPMC? A. It can be used to link sites, search for sites, and to delegate Group Policy-related features. B. It can be used to sign and encrypt all LDAP communications. C. It provides administrators with the ability to back up, restore, import, and copy/paste GPOs, as well as to create, delete, and rename them. D. It can be used to view all Group Policy management functions. Ans:- C 37. Find which of the following are exceptions to the order in Find which GPOs are processed? A. The default order for processing Group policy settings is also affected by selecting the Enforced setting. B. You can modify the default behavior by using the Block Inheritance option. C. If a computer belongs to a workgroup, it processes only local GPOs. D. all of the above Ans:- D 38. when you configure loopback in ________ mode, the Computer Configuration GPO settings are appended to the default list of GPOs. A. Replace B. Merge C. DefaultD. Append Ans:- B 39. In order to delegate permissions for a GPO, you must have the ___________ permission for the GPO. A. Edit user, context, menu B. Edit settings, delete and modify the security C. Edit group, delete, modify user D. none of the above Ans:- B 40. The GPMC combines the functionality of the ACL Editor, Delegation Wizard, and Resultant Set of the Policy tool. A. True B. False Ans:- A 41. The GPT contains all of the Registry entries, as well as associated files and folders required to implement the various GPO functions. A. True B. False Ans:- A 42. Administrative settings are used to determine the applications that will be distributed to computers or users via a GPO. A. True B. False Ans:- B 43. The User Group Policy loopback processing mode is used when both the user account and the computer account are members of a Windows 2000 or later domain. A. True B. False Ans:- A 44. You assign permissions to delegate administrative control over a GPO on the Delegation tab in the GPMC. A. True B. False Ans:- A Q45. Which one is not valid groups? A. Local groups B. Distribution groups C. Security groups D. All of the above Q46. Which one is not valid group scopes? A. Local B. Global –local C. Domain-local D. Universal Q47. Which of the following is not security- enabled groups? A. Security groups B. Local groups c. Distribution groupsD. Universal groups Q48. Can you convert Distribution groups into Security groups or vice-versa? A. YES, NO B. NO, NO C. YES, YES D. NO, YES Q49. Can we give permissions in Distribution groups and security groups? A. YES, YES B. NO, NO C. YES, NO D. NO, YES Q50. The best practice of nesting groups is known as? A. IGMI B. IDDLF C. IGI D. IGDLA Q51. What is the purpose of global group scope? A. Local computer rights and resources permission B. Domain resources and rights permission C. collect user with similar characteristics D. Right and resource to trusted tree Q52. Local group scope can assigned permissions to resources on? A. The local computer only B. Anywhere in the domain C. Anywhere in the forest D. Anywhere in the domain and trusted domain Q53. Domain- Local group scope can assigned permissions to resources to? A. on the local computer only B. Anywhere in the domain C. Anywhere in the forest D. Anywhere in the domain and trusted domain Q54. Universal group scope can assigned permissions to resources to? A. on the local computer only B. Anywhere in the domainC. Anywhere in the forest D. Anywhere in the domain and trusted domain Day 10 Questions Windows Server (Day 10) 1) There are __ forest-wide FSMO roles and __ domain-wide FSMO roles.  4 & 3  3 & 2  2 & 3  1 & 3 2) Which of this is a forest-wide FSMO role ?  RID master  PDC emulator  Infrastructure master  Schema master 3) Which DC can process updates to the directory schema ?  Schema master  Domain naming master  RID master  PDC emulator 4) By default, all five operations master roles are assigned to the  First domain controller  Child domain  Domain forrest  None of these 5) Minimum additional domain controllers required to act as standby for other operations masters  2  3  1  0 6) Which FSMO role holder is the DC responsible for adding or removing a domain from the directory ?  Schema master  RID master  Domain naming master  PDC emulator 7) Which operations master role should not be assigned to a domain controller hosting a global catalog service, if there is more than one domain  RID master  PDC emulator  Schema master  Infrastructure master role8) Password changes performed by other DCs in the domain are replicated preferentially to the  PDC emulator  Schema master  Domain naming master  RID master 9) When a DC creates a security principal object such as a user or group, it attaches a unique __ to the object.  Security ID (SID)  Domain ID  Both  None of the above 10) Which FSMO role is responsible for removing an object from its domain and putting it in another domain during an object move.  RID master  Schema master  Domain naming master  PDC emulator 11) Which Microsoft tool is used to boot the system during successive boot failures ?  Internet Explorer  Windows RE  Both  None 12) How many options does a user have while recovering the data ?  2  1  3  4 13) The container object consisting of the deleted objects from Active Directory is called  Tombstone  Garbage  Deleted  All 14) The tombstone lifetime for the OS version Windows Server 2012 R2 is  190  60  180  Lifetime 15) Which windows server 2008 tool is used to view objects stored in AD along with their metadata and attributes.  Lodctr  Ldp  Lpr  Lpq 16) When an object is deleted from an Active Directory, it  Gets permanently deleted  Goes in AD recycle bin  Goes in garbage bin  Impossible to delete17. Which of the following should not be used to view all the domain-wide operations master role assignments?  Active Directory Users  Computer Consoles  Trust Console  None Of These 18. Steps to transfer FSMO roles from command line:- P. Type connections and press enter. Q.Type quit and press enter. R. Type roles and enter. S. Type ntdsutil and enter. Going in a chronological order select from the following:- a. PSQR b. RSQP c. SRPQ d. SRQP 19. Command which is used to seize any operations master role is:- a. ntdsutil.exe b. ntdsutil.cmd c. ntdsutil.sys d. ntdsutil 20. Identify your data protection options by :- a. Defining Organisation Critical Resources b. Identify The Time Needed To Complete The Recovery c. Developing A Protection Strategy d. All Of These 21. SLA(Service Level Agreement) Components include : a. Hour of operation b. Service availability c. RPO and RTO d. All of these 22. Which of these is not Enterprise Data Protection Strategies ? a. Services b. Folders c. Sites d. Offsite Backups 23. One can use windows server backup to : a. Backup All Servers(Volumes) b. Backup Selected Volumes c. Backup Selected Items d. Backup Individual Files And Folders e. All of these 24. How many types of backup are there on servers ? a. 2 b. 3 c. 1 d. 525. Which of these are not the backup technologies ? a. VSS b. Hyper-V c. Streaming Backup d. Firmware Backup 26. Which of these are not the properties of Data Protection Manager ? a. Centralize Backups b. 15 minutes snapshot of servers and clients c. Backup data storage on SANs and export to tape d. Supports Microsoft Products e. None of These 27. Which of these is not active directory recycle bin requirements? a. Adprep b. Forestprep c. Sysvol d. Domainprep 28.Which command is used to access backup and recovery tools ? a. wbadmin.msc b. wbadmin.cmd c. wbadmin.exe d. wbadmin.sys 29.Out of these ,which critical volume must be backed up? a. System Volume b. Volume hosting SYSVOL, AD DS c. Volume hosting ntds.dit, logs d.All Of These 30.Which of these is a part of additional backup and recovery tools? a. Active Directory Snapshots b. Windows Powershell Cmdlets c. Windows Recovery Environment d. All Of These 31.Which of these is not an active directory restore options? a. Nonauthoritative Restore b. Full Server Store c. Alternate Location Restore d. Unauthoritative Restore 32. How many types of active directory restore options are there a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 33. What is the restore type where particular object of active directory can be used a. Non-authoriative b. Authoriative c. Security d. None of those