Pathophysiology Quiz Questions with accurate answers, 100% Accurate

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Pathophysiology Quiz Questions with accurate answers, 100% Accurate During the first two years of life it is important for the infant / child to see the pediatrician frequently because: a. Asses ... s for appropriate attainment of neurodevelopmental milestones b. Assess for appropriate growth c. Discuss safety issues d. Provide vaccines e. All of the above - ✔✔E Which of the following is FALSE regarding growth and development in pediatric patients? a. Growth in teenage girls is usually complete between 16-17 years of age. b. Growth is normal for a given pediatric patient if it follows the same growth curve over time. c. On average, infants will double their birthweight by 4-5 months of age. d. Failure to follow a normal trajectory can alert providers to abnormalities. e. There is little variability among pediatric patients of a similar gender in regards to height and weight. - ✔✔E Which of the following structures may need to be kept open in a neonate with congenital heart disease until corrective surgery can occur? a. Aortic valve b. Ductus arteriosus c. Ductus venosus d. Foramen Ovale e. Pulmonary valve - ✔✔B Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis is defined as: a. A collection of fluid in the peritoneal cavity b. A rupture of the peritoneum due to an excess of ascitic fluid c. A resistance to blood flow in the portal vein d. An infection of the ascitic fluid seeded by bacteria from the gut - ✔✔D In a patient with alcoholic liver disease, which of the following deficiencies can increase the risk for Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome? a. Calcium b. Folic acid c. Phosphorus d. Thiamine - ✔✔D A patient presents to the ER with confusion and agitation. She has a past medical history of cirrhosis and her lab results are significant for an ammonia of 85 μmol/L (elevated). This lab result is best explained by: a. An inability to metabolize ammonia to urea b. An injury to the liver cells c. Decreased synthesis of urea d. The patient eating a low protein diet - ✔✔A The patient is a 36 year old male intravenous (IV) drug user who presents to clinic complaining of jaundice and abdominal pain. He reports that he last used IV drugs 4 weeks ago. It is thought that the patient may have Hepatitis B or C. Based on his clinical presentation, what phase of hepatitis would the patient be in? a. Convalescent phase b. Icteric phase c. Post-viral phase d. Prodromal phase - ✔✔B How does decreased plasma albumin contribute to the development of ascites? a. Decreased plasma albumin leads to splenomegaly and water retention b. Decreased plasma albumin leads to vasoconstriction and wasting of sodium c. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure leads to the leaking of excess fluid into the peritoneal cavity d. Increased plasma oncotic pressure leads to the leaking of fluid into the peritoneal cavity - ✔✔C Which of the following are the principle anatomic regions of the kidney? a. Artery, tubule, vein b. Exocrine, endocrine, urinalysis c. Filtration, proteinuria, edema d. Pelvis, medulla, cortex - ✔✔D Which of the following is a part of the nephron? Answers: a. Circle of Henle b. Erythropoietin c. Glomerulus d. Upside-down Collecting Tubule - ✔✔C Which of the following terms is matched correctly with its definition? a. hematuria: large amounts of protein in the urine b. hypoproteinemia: high blood protein c. proteinuria: blood in the urine d. reduced glomerular filtration rate: inefficient filtering of wastes from the blood - ✔✔D Which of the following is TRUE about acute renal failure? a. It can be defined using CGA classification b. It is irreversible c. It is present for more than 3 months d. It is reversible - ✔✔D Which of the following complications is associated with chronic renal failure? a. Changes in hair color b. Hyperphosphatemia c. Hyperthyroidism d. Skin infection - ✔✔B What are common characteristics of a cancer cell? a. Absent antigen expression and high cell-to-cell adhesion b. High differentiation and limited cell life span c. Low cell to cell adhesion and independent growth factor dependence d. Normal substance production and high cell to cell communication - ✔✔C Which phase of the cell cycle takes the shortest amount of time? a. G1 phase b. G2 phase c. Mitosis d. S phase - ✔✔C Describe the order of carcinogenesis a. Initiation->Progression->Promotion b. Initiation->Promotion->Progression c. Promotion->Progression->Initiation d. Progression->Promotion->Initiation - ✔✔B Anemia of chronic disease is characterized by a. Decreased B12 b. Decreased folic acid c. Decreased iron d. Increased hepcidin - ✔✔D Which macrocytic anemia does not cause neurologic changes? a. Aplastic anemia b. Folic acid deficiency c. Hypothyroidism d. Vitamin B12 deficiency - ✔✔B Which of the following is an example of endothelial injury that could increase risk for venous thromboembolism? a. Bed rest b. Hormonal oral contraceptives c. Obesity d. Surgery - ✔✔D Disorders in the venous circulation primarily involve: a. Activation of the clotting cascade b. Atherosclerotic plaque c. Impaired oxygen delivery d. Platelet adhesion - ✔✔A Which of the following is a NONreversible risk factor for development of deep venous thrombosis (DVT): a. Factor V Leiden mutation b. Pregnancy c. Smoking d. Use of estrogen containing oral contraceptives - ✔✔A The patient is a 73-year-old male recently discharged from the hospital following a deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in his left leg. He presents to your clinic today and is complaining of shortness of breath and chest pain. You find his heart rate and respiratory rate are elevated. Which of the following correspond with his symptoms? a. Aortic aneurysm b. Peripheral artery disease c. Pulmonary Embolism d. Venous insufficiency - ✔✔C Which of the following predisposes a patient to circulatory stasis? a. Cigarette smoking b. Estrogen containing oral contraceptives c. Indwelling venous catheter d. Spinal cord injury - ✔✔D Which of the following factors do NOT contribute to endothelial cell injury resulting in development of atherosclerotic lesions? a. High density lipoproteins (HDL) b. Inflammatory mediators c. Low density lipoproteins (LDL) d. Smoking - ✔✔A Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical assessment for peripheral artery disease? a. Cool temperature or lower extremities b. Hair loss c. Swelling of lower extremities d. Weak pulses of lower extremities - ✔✔C What is a potential mechanism of action for targeted drug therapy modality in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus? a. Increased glucose absorption b. Increased hepatic glucose output c. Increased insulin secretion from pancreatic alpha cells d. Increased peripheral glucose uptake in skeletal muscle - ✔✔D The patient is a 51-year-old Hispanic man who presents to your clinic for follow up of hypertension. He sits at a desk most of the workday. He continues to be overweight and he has not implemented your previous the exercise recommendations yet. He states he is worried about his health because his mother has diabetes. Which of the following risk factors for diabetes is NOT reversible? a. Family history of diabetes b. Hypertension c. Overweight d. Sedentary lifestyle - ✔✔A What is the cause of a type 2 myocardial infarction according to the universal definition of myocardial infraction? a. Increased myocardial oxygen demand without artery occlusion b. Myocardial infarction following a coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. Spontaneous artery occlusion most likely due to plaque rupture d. Sudden cardiac death - ✔✔A Which of the following patients has TWO or more risk factors for coronary artery disease? a. A man 42 years old with hypertension b. A man 44 years old with hyperlipidemia and hypothyroidism c. A woman 54 years old with a history of hypertension and diabetes type II d. A woman 56 years old with a mother with a history of CAD at the age of 75 years old - ✔✔C Which type of shock results from a loss of blood vessel tone reducing perfusion of vital organs? a. Cardiogenic b. Distributive c. Hypovolemic d. Obstructive - ✔✔B Which of the following is activated in HFrEF (systolic heart failure) leading to increased norepiephnrine and a risk of sudden cardiac death (SCD)? a. Endocrine system b. Lymphatic system c. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system d. Sympathetic nervous system - ✔✔D Which of the following is a hormone released secondary to ventricular stretch and is useful in the initial diagnosis of heart failure? a. Aldosterone b. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) c. C-reactive protein (CRP) d. Troponin - ✔✔B Which cardiac arrhythmia is associated with sudden cardiac death? a. Atrial Fibrillation b. Premature Atrial Contraction c. Premature Ventricular Contraction d. Ventricular Fibrillation - ✔✔D Which type of cerebrovascular disease is associated with ischemic neurologic deficits that resolves within 24 hours? a. Aneurysm b. Hemorrhagic Stroke c. Ischemic Stroke d. Transient Ischemic Attack - ✔✔D Which type of valvular heart disease involves backflow of blood between the left ventricle and the aorta? a. Aortic Valve Regurgitation b. Aortic Valve Stenosis c. Mitral Valve Regurgitation d. Mitral Valve Stenosis - ✔✔A Which type of cardiomyopathy is commonly caused by emotional stress and is reversible? a. Dilated Cardiomyopathy b. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy c. Peripartum Cardiomyopathy d. Tako-Tsubo Cardiomyopathy - ✔✔D Which condition is defined as fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity? a. Cardiac Tamponade b. Cardiomyopathy c. Pericardial Effusion d. Pericarditis - ✔✔C [Show More]

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