IDEAL PROFESSIONAL INSTITUTE
NURSING EXAM PART 1
1. The nurse is teaching a client about self-examination. The client asks the nurse where masses are
most often found. Which response(s) by the nurse are most appropri
...
IDEAL PROFESSIONAL INSTITUTE
NURSING EXAM PART 1
1. The nurse is teaching a client about self-examination. The client asks the nurse where masses are
most often found. Which response(s) by the nurse are most appropriate? Select all that apply.
A. In the axlla
B. Beneath the nipple
C. Lower inner quadrant
D. Upper outer quadrant
E. Lower outer quadrant
2. The nurse is assessing a client with herpes zoster. Which characteristic(s) does not the nurse expect to
note when assessing the lesions of this infection? Select all that apply.
A. Clustered skin vesicles
B. A generalized body rash
C. Small blue-white spots with a red base
D. A fiery red edematous rash on the cheeks
E. Grouped vesicles on an erythematous base.
3. A client is scheduled for a craniotomy to remove a brain tumor. To prevent the development of
cerebral edema after surgery, the nurse anticipates the use of:
A. Steroids
B. Diuretics
C. Anticonvulsants
D. Antihypertensive
4. A nurse driving along the scene of an accident and stops to assist with a deep laceration his hand, a
fractured arm and leg, and abdominal pain. The nurse wraps the man’s hand in asoiled cloth and drives
him to the nearest hospital. The nurse is:
A. Practicing her skills as a nurse
B. Negligent and can be sued for malpractice
C. Practicing under guidelines of the Nurse Practice Act.
D. Protected for these actions, in most states, by Good Samaritan legislation
5. A visitor in the room adjacent to a client asks the nurse what disease the client has. The nurse
responds, “I will not discuss my client’s illness. Are you worried about it?” This response is based on the
nurse’s knowledge that to discuss a client’s condition with someone not directly involved with the client
is an example of:
A. Negligence
B. Breach of confidentiality
C. Libel
D. Defamation of character
6. When approaching homosexual clients with acquired immunodefiency syndrome (AIDS), it is most
important for nurses to:
A. Establish a meaningful rapport with clients
B. Having strong sense of their own sexual identity
C. Admit their own feelings or discomfort towards them
D. Become aware of their own attitude towards homosexuality
7.The client has a prescription for a calcium carbonate compound to neutralize stomach acid. The nurse
should assess the client for:
A. Constipation
B. Hyperphosphatemia
C. Hypomagnesaemia
D. Diarrhea
8. Heparin has been ordered for a client with pulmonary embolis. Which of the following statement,
made by the graduate nurse, indicated a lack of knowledge regarding the medication?
A. “I will administer the medication 1-2 inches away from the umbilicus.”
B. “I will administer the medication in the abdomen area.”
C. “I will check the PTT before administering the medication.”
D. “I will need to aspirate when I give the Heparin.”
9. The nurse is preparing a client with an axillo-politeal bypass for discharge. The client should be taught
to avoid:
A. Using a recliner to rest.
B. Resting in supine position
C. Sitting in a straight chair
D. Sleeping in right Sim’s position
10. The nurse has just receive the shift report and is preparing to make rounds. Which client should be
seen first?
A. The client with a history of a cerebral aneurysm with oxygen saturation rate of 99%
B. The client three days post-coronary artery bypass graft with temperature of 100.3 degree F.
C. The client admitted 1 hour ago with shortness of breath.
D. The client being prepared for discharge following a femoral politeal bypass graft
11. The nurse is teaching the client regarding use of sodium warfarin. Which statement made by the
client would indicate further teaching in required?
A. “I will have my blood drawn every month.”
B. “I will assess my skin for a rash.”
C. “I will take aspiring for my headache.”
D. “I will use an electric razor to shave.”
12. If an interpreter is not available when a patient speaks a language different from the nurse’s
language, it is appropriate for the nurse to
A. Use specific medical terms in the Latin form.
B. Talk slowly so that each word is clearly heard.
C. Repeat important words so that the patient recognize their importance
D. Use simple gestures to demonstrate meaning while talking to the patient.
13. Which action should the nurse take to monitor the effects of an acute stressor on a hospitalized
patient (Select all that apply)?
A. Assess for bradycardia
B. Ask about epihastric pain
C. Observe for increased appetite
D. Check for elevated blood glucose levels
E. Monitor for a decrease in respiratory rate
14. A patient who has fibromyalgia tells the nurse, “My life feels very chaotic and out of my control will
not be able to manage if anything else happens.” Which response should the nurse make initially?
A. “Regular massages may help reduce muscle pain.”
B. “Guided imagery can be helpful in regaining control.”
C. “Tell me more about how your life has been recently.”
D. “Your previous coping mechanisms can help you now.”
15. The health care provider plans to titrate a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA. Machine to provide pain
relief for a patient with acute surgical pain who has never received opoids in the past. Which of the
following nursing actions regarding opoid administration are appropriate at this time (select all that
apply)?
A. Assessing for signs that the patient is becoming addicted to the opiod
B. Monitoring for therapeutic and adverse effects of opiod administration
C. Emphasizing that the risk of some opiod side effects increases over time
D. Educating the patient about how analgesics improve postoperative activity levels.
E. Teaching about the need to decrease opiod doses by the second postoperative day
16. A terminally ill patient is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse include in the initial
plan of care?
A. Determine the patient’s wishes regarding end of life care
B. Emphasize the importance of addressing any families issues
C. Discuss the normal grief process with the patient and family
D. Encourage the patient to talk about any fears or unresolved issues.
17. A patient’s temperature has been 101 F. (38.3 C. for several days. The patient’s normal caloric intake
to meet nutritional needs is about 2000 calories per day. Knowing that the metabolic rate increases 7%
for each Fahrenheit degree about 100 degrees in body temperature, calculate the total calories the
patient should receive each day__________
18. On the examination the following question will ask to put in order: A patient who has an infected
abdominal wound develops a temperature of 104 degree F. (40 C. All the following interventions are
included in the patient’s plan of care. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions?
A. Sponge patient with water
B. Administer intravenous antibiotics
C. Perform wet to dry dressing change.
D. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol)
19. The nurse has administered 3% saline to a patient with hyponatremia. Which one of these
assessment data will require the most rapid response by the nurse?
A. The patient’s radial pulse is 105 beats/minute
B. There is sediment and blood in the patient’s urine
C. The blood pressure increases from 120/80 to 142/94
D. There are crackles audible throughout both lung fields
20. The following data are prohibited by the nurse when assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia
who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which finding is most important to report to the health care
provider immediately?
A. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased.
B. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent
C. The patient has been sleeping most of the day.
D. The patient reports feeling “sick to my stomach.”
21. A patient with advanced lung cancer is admitted to the emergency department with urinary
retention caused by renal calculi. Which laborarotory values will require the most immediate action by
the nurse?
A. Arterial blood pH is 7.32.
B. Serum calcium is 18 mEq/L.
C. Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L
D. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%
22. A home care nurse is preparing to visit a client with a diagnosis of Meniere’s disease. The nurse
review’s the physician’s orders and expects to note that which of the following dietary measures will be
prescribed?
A. Low fiber diet with decreased fluids
B. Low sodium diet and fluid restriction
C. Low carbohydrate diet and elimination of red meats
D. Low fat with restriction of citrus fruits
23. A nurse is assigned to care for a client who has just undergone eye surgery. The nurse plans to
instruct the client that which of the following activities Is permitted in the postoperative period?
A. Reading
B. Watching television
C. Bending over
D. Lifting objects
24. A client has undergone surgery for glaucoma. The nurse provides which discharge instructions to the
clients?
A. Wound healing usually takes 12 weeks
B. Expected the vision will be permanently impaired
C. A shield or eye patch should be worn to protect the eye
D. The structures are removed after 1 week
25. When the nurse prepares the client or the myringotomy , the best explanation as to the purpose for
the procedures is that it will:
A. Prevent permanent hearing loss
B. Provide a pathway for drainage
C. Aid in administering medications
D. Maintain motion of the ear bones
26. A nurse is reviewing the record of the client with a disorder involving the inner ear. Which of the
following would the nurse expect to see documented as an assessment finding in this client?
A. Severe hearing loss
B. Complaints of severe pain in the affected ear
C. Complaints of burning in the ear
D. Complaints of tinnitus
27. The nurse cares for a toddler diagnosed with pneumonia caused by Haemophilusinfluenzae. The
nurse should follow which of the following transmission based precautions?
A. Standard precautions
B. Airborne precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Contact precautions
28. The nurse expects the emotional responses of a client with a cerebral vascular accident (CVA. Of the
left hemisphere to be MOST influenced by which of the following?
A. The client’s ability to understand the illness and treatment
B. The client’s perception of the care received during his illness
C. The client’s personality and general health prior to the CVA
D. The type of lesion that caused the CVA
29. The nurse that which of the following clients are at risk to develop pneumonia? Select all that apply.
A. A 16 year old male who has experimented with cigarettes
B. A 25 year old female diagnosed with cystic fibrosis
C. A 36 year old male diagnosed with Addison’s disease
D. A 47 old male diagnosed with hypertension
E. A 68 year old with a fracture rib due to an auto accident
F. A 79 year old female in Buck’s traction due to a fractured hip.
30. Health teaching for Barbara includes ensuring that she understands that
A. Proper prophylactic medication can control the incidences of seizures
B. Moderate use of alcohol is permitted
C. Forcing fluids helps to reduce the incidence of seizures
D. The incidence of seizures is related to hyperglycemia
31. to prepare Barbara for EEG, the nurse should explain that
A. During the test she will experience small electrical shocks that feel like pin pricks
B. The test measures mental status as well as electrical brain waves
C. During the hyperventilation portion of the test, she may experience dizziness
D. She will be unconscious during the test
32.Situstion: Barbara is a 23 year old woman who lives with her mother, sister and brother in a private
residence. She is attending the neurological out-patient clinic for the first name. her health history
includes two grand mal seizures/A diagnosis of idiopathic epilepsy has been made. The physician has
ordered an electroencephalogram (EEG) and phenytoin sodium (Dilantin), 300 mg/day. While doing a
nursing history on Barbara, the nurse should recognize that
A. Persons with idiopathic epilepsy have a lower intelligence level
B. Grand mal seizures do not cause mental deterioration
C. A common characteristics of idiopathic epilepsy is committing acts of violence
D. Idiopathic epilepsy is a form of mental illness
33. A client has been hospitalized after an automobile accident. A full leg cast applied while inside the
emergency room. The most important reason for the nurse to elevate the casted leg is to:
A. Reduce the drying time
B. Decrease irritation to the skin
C. Improve venous return
D. Promote the client’s comfort
34. The nurse is reviewing with a client how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. What is the
appropriate sequence to teach the client?
A. Clean the meatus, begin vomiting, and then catch the urine stream
B. Void a little, clean the meatus, then collect specimen
C. Clean the meatus, then urinate into container
D. Void continuously and catch some of the urine.
35 The client is admitted to the telemetry unit diagnosed with acute exacerbation of congestive heart
failure (CHF). Which signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find when assessing the client?
A. Apical pulse rate of 110 and 4 + pitting edema of feet
B. Thick white sputum and crackles that clear with cough
C. The client sleeping with no pillow and eupnea
D. Radial pulse rate of 90 and capillary refill time less than 3 seconds
36. The nurse is assessing the client with congestive heart failure. Which signs and symptoms would
indicate that the medical treatment has been effective?
A. The client’s peripheral pitting edema has globe from 3+ to 4+
B. The client is able to take the radial pulse accurately
C. The client is able to perform activities of daily living without dyspnea
D. The client has minimal jugular vein distention
37. The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. A
nursing diagnosis of “decreased cardiac output related to inability of the heart to pimp effectively” is
written. Which short-term goal would be best for the client? The client will:
A. Be able to ambulate in the hall by date of discharge
B. Have an audible S1 and S2 with no S3 heard be end of shift
C. Turn, cough, and deep breather every two (2) hours
D. Have a pulse oximeter reading of 98% by say two (2) of care
38. The nurse is developing a discharge-teaching plan for the client diagnosed with congestive heart
failure. Which intervention should be included in the plan? Select all that apply.
A. Notify health care provider of more than 1 pound a week
B. Teach client how to count the radial pulse when taking dixogin, a cardiac glycoside
C. Instruct client to remove the saltshaker from the dinner table
D. Encourage client to monitor urine output for change in color to become dark
E. Discuss the importance of taking the loop diuretic Furosemide at bedtime
39. The nurse is caring diagnosed with myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which
interventions should the nurse implement?
A. Administer morphine via IV
B. Administer an aspirin orally
C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
D. Place the client in a supine position
E. Administer nitroglycerin subcutaneously
40. Which client teaching should the nurse implement for the client diagnosed with coronary artery
disease? Select all that apply.
A. Encourage a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet
B. Instruct client to walk 30 minutes a day
C. Decrease the salt intake to 2 grams a day
D. Refer to counselor for stress reduction techniques
E. Increase fiber in the diet
41. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse assess in any client who has a long term valvular heart
disease? Select all that apply.
A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
B. Orthopnea
C. Cough
D. Pericardial friction rub
E. Pulsusparadous
42. The client is in ventricular fibrillation. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all
that apply.
A. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B. Prepare to administer the antidyrhtymic adenosine IVP
C. Prepare to defibrillate the client
D. Bring the crash cart to the bedside
E. Prepare to administer the antidysrhythmicamiodacrone IVP
43. The health care provider orders a medication in a dose that us considered toxic. The nurse
administers the medication to the client, who later suffers cardiac arrest and dies. What consequence
can the nurse expect from this situation? Select all that apply.
A. The health care provider can be charged with negligence, being the person who ordered the
dose
B. As the employing agency, only the hospital can be charged with negligence
C. The nurse and physician may be terminated from employment to prevent a charge of negligence
to the hospital;
D. Negligence will not be charged, as this event could happen to any reasonable person
E. The nurse can be charged with negligence for administering the toxic dose
45. Which action would the nurse take to maintain medical asepsis when caring for a client with
diabetes mellitus on the medical nursing unit who requires irrigation of a leg ulcer and insulin injections?
Select all that apply.
A. Wash hands before and after client care.
B. Wear personal protective equipment during the dressing change
C. Recap a needle after administering insulin
D. Change the dressing for a diabetic ulcer using sterile globes
E. Wipe the rubber stopper on the insulin vial before withdrawing dose
46. Following a liver transplant the client is taking prednisone and other medications to prevent organ
rejection. The nurse should instruct the client to make priority to report which manifestation to the
heath care provider?
A. Moon face
B. Diminished pigmentation
C. Dysphasia
D. bleeding
47. Kevin is a member of the Nursing Research Council of the hospital. His first assignment is to
determine the level of patient satisfaction on the care they received from the hospital. He plans to
include all adult patients admitted from April to May, with average length of stay of 3-4 days, first
admission, and with no complications. Which of the following is an extraneous variable of the study?
A. Date of admission
B. Length of stay
C. Age of patients
D. Absence of complications
48. He thinks of an appropriate theoretical framework. Whose theory addresses the four modes of
adaptation?
A. Martha Rogers
B. Sr. Callista Roy
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Jean Watson
49. He opts to use a self-report method. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about this method?
A. Most direct means of gathering information
B. Versatile in terms of content coverage
C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering
D. Yields information that would be difficult to gather by another method
50. Which of the following articles would Kevin least consider for his review of literature?
A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients.”
B. “Turnaround Time in Emergency Rooms.”
C. “Outcome Standards in Tertiary Health care Institutions.”
D. “Environment Manipulation and Client Outcomes.”
51. Which of the following variables will he likely EXCLUDE in his study?
A. Competence of nurses
B. Caring attitude of nurses
C. Salary of nurses
D. Responsiveness of staff
52. He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine
A. Degree of agreement and disagreement
B. Compliance to expected standards
C. Level of satisfaction
D. Degree of acceptance
53. A patient in the ICU is status post embolectomy after a pulmonary embolus. What does the nurse
measure on a patient who is postoperative from an embolectomy?
A. Left atrial pressure
B. Pressure in the vena cava
C. Pulmonary venous pressure
D. Pulmonary arterial pressure
54. A 52 year old mother of three has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. The physician discusses
treatment options and makes recommendations to this patient. After the physical leaves the room, the
patient asks the nurse how the treatment is decided on. What would be the nurse’s best response?
A. “The type of treatment depends on the patient’s age and health status.”
B. “The type of treatment depends on what the patient wants when given the options.”
C. “The type of treatment depends on the cell type of the cancer, the stage of the cancer, and the
patient’s heath status.”
D. “The type of treatment depends on the discussion between the patient and the physician of
which treatment is best.”
55. Chest trauma to at least one of the several pathologic states; what are they? Select all that apply.
A. Hypovolemia
B. Cardiac failure
C. Pulmonary embolus
D. Hypoxemia
E. Aortic rupture
56.The occupational health nurse is assessing new
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