ASVAB Practice Test

SECTION 1: General Science Answer keys to all sections are provided at the end of the test. 1: A series of cell divisions that results in the formation of an embryo is called: A. mitosis B. meiosis C. osmosis D. cl ...

SECTION 1: General Science Answer keys to all sections are provided at the end of the test. 1: A series of cell divisions that results in the formation of an embryo is called: A. mitosis B. meiosis C. osmosis D. cleavag e 2: An animal that eats only plants is called a(n): A. omnivore B. herbivore C. carnivore D. voraciou s 3: The process by which energy is provided at the cellular level is called: A. respiration B. recreation C. oxidation D. metabolis m 4: All of the following are domains except: 1 A. Regelia B. Eukarya C. Bacteri a D. Archae a 5: Light waves travel at a rate of about: A. 186,000 miles per hour B. 186,000 miles per minute C. 18,600 miles per hour D. 186,000 miles per second 6: The largest moon in the solar system is: A. Ganymed e B. Titan C. Io D. Charon 7: The spinal cord is part of the: A. circulatory system B. nervous system C. respiratory system D. digestive system 8: Joints that hold bones firmly together are called: A. hinge joints B. ball and socket joints 2 C. fixed joints D. pivot joints 9: The top or broadest level of the classification system for living organisms is called: A. class B. phylum C. kingdo m D. genus 10: If there are two full moons in a single month, the second full moon is called: A. new moon B. full moon C. blue moon D. secondary moon 1: The brainstem connects the brain to the: A. heart B. lungs C. neck D. spinal cord 12: Red blood cells: A. produce antibodies B. fight infections C. carry oxygen and carbon dioxide D. are few in number 13: Protein can be found in all of the following foods EXCEPT: A. eggs 3 B. meat C. peas D. apple s 14: Which inorganic substance is present in the greatest quantity inside animal cells? A. protein B. oxygen C. sodium chloride D. water 15: Cell protoplasm is made up mostly of: A. water B. oxyge n C. sugar D. protein 16: A meter consists of: A. 10 centimeters B. 100 millimeters C. 100 centimeters D. 10 millimeters 17: It’s impossible for the sun to turn into a black hole because: A. it’s too large B. it’s too small C. it’s a yellow star D. it has planets 18: Electrons are particles that are: 4 A. positively charged B. neutral C. able to move freely D. negatively charged 19: The chamber of the heart that pumps blood to the lungs is called the: A. right ventricle B. left ventricle C. right atrium D. left atrium 20: The atomic number of an atom is determined by: A. the size of its nucleus B. the number of protons C. the number of electrons D. its location in the periodic table 1: The smallest part of an element that still acts like an element is: A. the nucleus B. a compound C. the element itself D. the atom 22: How many planets in the solar system have rings? A. one B. two C. thre e 5 D. four 23: The temperature at which a solid becomes a liquid is its: A. melting point B. boiling point C. freezing point D. concentration point 24: The surface of the earth is called the: A. mantl e B. core C. shawl D. crust 25: Not counting the sun, the closest star to the Earth is: A. Rigel B. Proxima Centauri C. Antares D. Betel sECTION 2: Arithmetic Reasoning 1.: If a car is towed 12 miles to the repair shop, and the tow charge is $3.50 per mile, how much did the tow cost? A. $12.00 B. $3.50 C. $42.00 D. $100.0 0 2: The sum of two numbers is 70. One number is 8 more than the other. What’s the smaller number? A. 3 1 B. 33 C. 3 5 D. 3 6 3: A sales manager buys antacid in bottles by the gross. If he goes through 3 bottles of antacid every day, how long will the gross last? A. 144 days B. 3 days C. 20 days D. 48 days 4: Jenny’s test grades are 93, 89, 96, and 98. If she wishes to raise her average to 95, what does she need to score on her next test? A. 10 0 B. 99 7 C. 97 D. 95 5: A waitress earns an average tip of 12% of the cost of the food she serves. If she serves $375 worth of food in one evening, how much money in tips will she earn on average? A. $37 B. $45 C. $42 D. $42 0 6: How many square feet of carpeting are needed to carpet a 12–foot × 12–foot room? A. 24 B. 120 C. 48 D. 14 4 7: Carpet stain protector costs $0.65 per square yard to apply. How much will it cost to apply the protectant to a 16–foot × 18–foot carpet? A. $187.2 0 B. $62.40 C. $20.80 D. $96.00 8: A printing plant that produces baseball cards has a monthly overhead of $6,000. It costs 18 cents to print each card, and the cards sell for 30 cents each. How many cards must the printing plant sell each month in order to make a profit? A. 30,00 0 B. 40,000 C. 50,00 0 D. 60,00 8 0 9: Joe received an hourly wage of $8.15. His boss gave him a 7% raise. How much does Joe make per hour now? A. $0.57 B. $8.90 C. $8.72 D. $13.8 5 10: Alice leaves her house, driving east at 45 miles per hour (mph). Thirty minutes later, her husband Dave notices she forgot her cell phone and sets off after her. How fast must Dave travel in order to catch up with Alice 3 hours after he leaves? A. 49 mph B. 50.5 mph C. 52.5 mph D. 54 mph 11: A baker made 20 pies. A Boy Scout troop buys one–fourth of his pies, a preschool teacher buys one–third of his pies, and a caterer buys one–sixth of his pies. How many pies does the baker have left? A. 3 ⁄4 B. 15 C. 1 2 D. 5 12: Miriam bought five cases of motor oil on sale. A case of motor oil normally costs $24.00, but she was able to purchase the oil for $22.50 a case. How much money did Miriam save on her entire purchase? A. $7.50 B. $1.50 C. $8.00 D. $22.5 0 9 13: A security guard walks the equivalent of six city blocks when he makes a circuit around the building. If he walks at a pace of eight city blocks every 30 minutes, how long will it take him to complete a circuit around the building, assuming he doesn’t run into any thieves? A. 20.00 minutes B. 3.75 minutes C. 22.50 minutes D. 24.00 minutes 14: The population of Grand Island, Nebraska, grew by 600,000 people between 1995 and 2005, one–fifth more than the town council predicted. The town council originally predicted the city’s population would grow by: A. 400,00 0 B. 500,000 C. 300,00 0 D. 200,00 0 15: Joan is taking an admissions examination. If she has to get at least 40 of the 60 questions right to pass, what percent of the questions does she need to answer correctly? A. 30% B. 40% C. 661 ⁄3 % D. 662 ⁄3 % 16: A teacher deposited $3,000 in a retirement fund. If she didn’t add any more money to the fund, which earns an annual interest rate of 6%, how much money would she have in 1 year? A. $180 B. $3,006 C. $3,18 0 D. $6,00 10 0 17: The high–school track measures one quarter of a mile around. How many laps would you have to run in order to run three and a half miles? A. 1 2 B. 14 C. 1 6 D. 1 8 18: Karl is driving in Austria, where the speed limit is posted in kilometers per hour. The car’s speedometer shows that he’s traveling at a rate of 75 kilometers per hour. Karl knows that a kilometer is about 5 ⁄8 of a mile. Approximately how many miles per hour is Karl traveling? A. 47 B. 12 0 C. 50 D. 53 19: A carpenter earns $12.30 an hour for a 40–hour week. His overtime pay is 11 ⁄2 times his base pay. If he puts in a 46–hour week, how much is his weekly pay? A. $602.7 0 B. $492.00 C. $565.8 0 D. $110.70 20: An office building has 30 employees and allows 42 square feet of work space per employee. If five more employees are hired, how much less work space will each employee have? A. 6 square feet B. 7 square feet C. 7.5 square feet D. 8 square feet 11 21: Stan bought a monster truck for $2,000 down and payments of $450 a month for five years. What’s the total cost of the monster truck? A. $4,250 B. $29,000 C. $27,00 0 D. $34,40 0 22: Darla spent $120.37 on groceries in January, $108.45 in February, and $114.86 in March. What was the average monthly cost of Darla’s groceries? A. $343.6 8 B. $110.45 C. $114.86 D. $114.56 23: Keith is driving from Reno to Kansas City to meet his girlfriend. The distance between the two cities is 1,650 miles. If Keith can average 50 miles per hour, how many hours will it take him to complete his trip? A. 8 hours B. 30 hours C. 33 hours D. 82 hours 24: Michael needs 55 gallons of paint to paint an apartment building. He would like to purchase the paint for the least amount of money possible. Which of the following should he buy? A. two 25–gallon buckets at $550 each B. eleven 5–gallon buckets at $108 each C. six 10–gallon buckets at $215 each D. fifty–five 1–gallon buckets at $23 each 25: As a member of FEMA, you’re required to set up a contingency plan to supply meals to residents of a town devastated by a tornado. A breakfast ration weighs 12 ounces and the lunch 12 and dinner rations weigh 18 ounces each. Assuming a food truck can carry 3 tons and that each resident will receive 3 meals per day, how many residents can you feed from one truck during a 10–day period? A. 150 residents B. 200 residents C. 250 residents D. 300 residents 26: A train headed south for Wichita left the station at the same time a train headed north for Des Moines left the same station. The train headed for Wichita traveled at 55 miles per hour. The train headed for Des Moines traveled at 70 miles per hour. How many miles apart were the trains at the end of 3 hours? A. 210 miles B. 165 miles C. 125 miles D. 375 miles 27: A carpenter needs to cut four sections, each 3–feet 8–inches long, from a piece of molding. If the board is only sold by the foot, what’s the shortest length of board she can buy? A. 15 feet B. 14 feet C. 16 feet D. 12 feet 28: Kiya had a coupon for 10% off one frozen turkey breast. The turkey breasts cost $8.50 each, and Kiya bought two. How much did she pay? A. $16.1 5 B. $17.00 13 C. $15.3 0 D. $7.65 29: A recruiter travels 1,100 miles during a 40–hour workweek. If she spends 2 ⁄5 of her time traveling, how many hours does she spend traveling? A. 22 B. 5 1 ⁄2 C. 16 D. 8 30: Your car uses gasoline at the rate of 21 miles per gallon. If gasoline costs $2.82 per gallon, and you drive for 7 hours at a speed of 48 miles per hour, how much will you pay for gasoline for the trip? A. $38.1 8 B. $45.12 C. $47.7 3 D. $59.2 7 SECTION 3: Word Knowledge Test Progress: ASVAB Practice Test 1 Questions 56 - 60 of 216 1: The gold was kept in a secure vault. A. locked B. safe C. unknow n D. thick 2: Assimilate most nearly means: 14 A. absorb B. react C. preten d D. lie 3: Theorize most nearly means: A. know B. speculat e C. study D. travel 4: Symmetrical most nearly means: A. uplifted B. congruent C. handsom e D. positive 5: The exchange student was proficient in French, German, and English. A. poor B. knowledgeabl e C. adept D. exacting 6: The students were scheduled to observe a plenary session of Congress. A. schedule d B. example C. special 15 D. full 7: He tried to goad his audience. A. insult B. incite C. pleas e D. bore 8: He ran headlong into the fight. A. headfirst B. reluctantl y C. happily D. recklessly 9: Flagrant most nearly means: A. quiet B. amazin g C. delayed D. glaring 10: The word most opposite in meaning to stimulate is: A. suppor t B. arrest C. travel D. dislike 11: Legacy most nearly means: A. history B. beques t 16 C. story D. will 12: The actions of the CEO were unconscionable. A. clever B. illegal C. excessive D. automati c 13: The sergeant gave his reasoned opinion. A. irate B. logical C. impressive D. uninforme d 14: Laudable most nearly means: A. loud B. fluid C. commendabl e D. transparent 15: The brass was burnished. A. yellow B. old C. expensiv e D. polished 16: The commodity was sold. A. produc t 17 B. stock C. idea D. table 17: Her motives were oblique. A. pure B. emotiona l C. obscure D. amusing 18: Superfluous most nearly means: A. superior B. unnecessar y C. helpful D. expensive 19: The word most opposite in meaning to hypocrisy is: A. honesty B. happy C. angry D. threatenin g 20: The report indicated a significant hemorrhage of corporate earnings. A. gain B. payou t C. trade D. loss 21: The army soldiers were ordered to immediate garrison duty. 18 A. field B. comba t C. latrine D. fort 22: Fiscal most nearly means: A. year B. financial C. calendar D. three months 23: Domicile most nearly means: A. office B. domesti c C. home D. vacation 24: Abate most nearly means: A. recover B. aid C. foreclos e D. end 25: To commission most nearly means: A. to give B. to rescind C. to earn D. to 19 authorize 26: He gave a succinct account of the events. A. passionate B. lengthy C. uncensore d D. concise 27: The vote resulted in the demise of the proposed new law. A. passage B. death C. postponemen t D. abatement 28: The politician exuded charisma. A. odors B. falseness C. charm D. generosit y 29: Burrow most nearly means: A. deepe n B. hide C. nestle D. jump 30: That custom still prevails. A. angers B. persists C. surprise 20 s D. excites 31: Contravene most nearly means: A. invade B. obstruc t C. argue D. reverse 32: Chasm most nearly means: A. hole B. sky C. mountai n D. valley 33: Fundamental most nearly means: A. radical B. religious C. basic D. excessiv e 34: Susceptible most nearly means: A. travel B. resistan t C. limited D. gullible 35: To emit most nearly means: A. to give off 21 B. to smell C. to contain D. to admit SECTION 4: Paragraph Comprehension Test Progress: ASVAB Practice Test 1 Questions 91 - 95 of 216 1: An important stage of personal time management is to take control of appointments. Determined by external obligation, appointments constitute interaction with other people and an agreed-on interface between your activities and those of others. Start with a simple appointment diary. List all appointments including regular and recurring ones. Now, be ruthless and eliminate the unnecessary. There may be committees where you can’t productively contribute or where a subordinate may be able to participate. Eliminate the waste of your time. Effectively managing your appointments allows you to: A. spend more time with your subordinates B. delegate responsibility to subordinates C. make more efficient use of your time D. attend only the most important meetings 2: The U.S. Congress consists of 100 senators and 435 representatives. Two senators are elected from each state. The number of representatives from each state is based on population, although each state has at least one representative. Senators serve six-year terms and representatives serve two-year terms. According to this passage: A. There are an equal number of senators and representatives. B. The number of representatives from each state is decided by a lottery. C. It’s possible for a state to have no representatives. D. Senators and representatives have different term lengths. 3: Indo–European languages consist of those languages spoken by most of Europe and in those parts of the world that Europeans have colonized since the 16th century (such as the United States). Indo–European languages are also spoken in India, Iran, parts of western Afghanistan, and in some areas of Asia. The author of this passage would agree that: 22 A. Indo–European languages are spoken in areas all over the world. B. Indo–European languages include all the languages spoken in the world. C. Only Europeans speak Indo–European languages. D. Indo–European language speakers can easily understand one another. 4: In privatization, the government relies on the private sector to provide a service. However, the government divests itself of the entire process, including all assets. With privatized functions, the government may specify quality, quantity, and timeliness requirements, but it has no control over the operations of the activity. Also, the government may not be the only customer. Whoever the government chooses to provide the services would likely provide the same services to others. This paragraph best supports the statement that: A. The government must closely supervise privatized functions. B. Privatized functions consist of a mixture of government employees, military personnel, and private contractors. C. Privatized functions are those institutions that provide services only to a government agency. D. Privatized functions provide essential services to the government. 5: The success or failure of a conference lies largely with its leader. A leader’s zest and enthusiasm must be real, apparent, and contagious. The leader is responsible for getting the ball rolling and making the attendees feel as if the meeting is theirs and its success depends on their participation. A good, thorough introduction helps establish the right climate. A good title to this paragraph would be: A. Lead by Example B. The Importance of Proper Introductions C. Leading a Successful Conference D. Conference Participation Basics 6: Cloud seeding is accomplished by dropping particles of dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) from a plane onto super-cooled clouds. This process encourages condensation of water droplets in the clouds, which usually, but not always, results in rain or snow. From this passage, it’s reasonable to assume that: A. Cloud seeding could be used to end a drought. B. Cloud seeding is prohibitively expensive. 23 C. Cloud seeding is rarely used. D. Cloud seeding can be accomplished by using regular ice. 7: To write or not to write – that is the question. If assigned a writing task, there’s no option. However, if someone is looking for a specific answer, find out if they need a short answer or a detailed one. Can the requirement be met with a telephone call, e–mail, or short note, or is something more necessary? A former CEO of a major corporation once commented that he had looked at 13,000 pieces of paper in a 5–day period. Think how much easier and more economical it would be if people would use the telephone, send an e–mail, or write a short note. The main point of this passage is: A. Written records are important as they provide detailed documentation. B. More business people should invest time and energy improving their writing skills. C. Writing may not be the best way to communicate information. D. It’s pointless for business people to spend time improving their writing skills. 8: The transistor, a small, solid–state device that can amplify sound, was invented in 1947. At first, it was too expensive and too difficult to produce to be used in cheap, mass–market products. By 1954, though, these cost and production problems had been overcome, and the first transistor radio was put on the market. According to this passage: A. There was no market for transistors before 1954. B. When transistors could be produced cheaply and easily, the transistor radio was put on the market. C. Transistors were invented in 1947 by order of the Department of Defense. D. Transistors are still expensive to produce. 9: I returned from the City about three o’clock on that May afternoon pretty well disgusted with life. I had been three months in the Old Country and was fed up with it. If people had told me a year ago that I would’ve been feeling like that I should’ve laughed at them; but there was the fact. The weather made me liverish, the talk of the ordinary Englishman made me sick, I couldn’t get enough exercise, and the amusements of London seemed as flat as soda water that had been standing in the sun. The author is speaking of his travels in: A. Spain B. Great Britain 24 C. Germany D. Scotland 10: Surveys show that the average child under the age of 18 watches four hours of television per day. Although some of the programming may be educational, most isn’t. Spending this much time watching television interferes with a child’s ability to pursue other interests, such as reading, participating in sports, and playing with friends. The author of this passage would agree that: A. Television viewing should be restricted. B. Parents who let their children watch this much television are neglectful. C. Reading, participating in sports, playing with friends, and watching television should all be given equal time. D. Adults over 18 can watch as much television as they want. Questions 11 and 12 are based on the following passage. High–school and college graduates attempting to find jobs should participate in mock job interviews. These mock interviews help students prepare for the types of questions they’ll be asked, make them more comfortable with common interview formats, and help them critique their performance before facing a real interviewer. Because they’re such a valuable aid, schools should organize mock job interviews for all of their graduating students.11: The above passage states that mock job interviews: A. frighten students B. should be offered to the best students C. help prepare students for real job interviews D. should be organized by students 12: From the above passage, it is reasonable to assume that: A. Mock interviews can increase a student’s confidence when he or she goes into a real job interview. B. Mock interviews are expensive to organize. C. Few students are interested in mock interviews. D. Students don’t need job interview preparation. Questions 13 through 15 are based on the following passage. Due process, the guarantee of fairness in the administration of justice, is part of the 5th 25 Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. The 14th Amendment further requires states to abide by due process. After this amendment was enacted, the U.S. Supreme Court struck down many state laws that infringed on the civil rights guaranteed to citizens in the Bill of Rights.13: According to the above passage, due process: A. is an outdated concept B. guarantees fairness in the justice system C. never became part of the U.S. Constitution D. is the process by which winning lottery tickets are selected 14: According to the above passage, it’s reasonable to assume that the 5th Amendment: A. is about taxes B. guarantees due process in all criminal and civil cases C. guarantees due process in federal law D. should never have become part of the Bill of Rights 15: The author of the above passage would agree that: A. Without the passage of the 14th Amendment, many laws restricting civil rights would still exist in various states. B. The Supreme Court overstepped its jurisdiction when it struck down laws infringing on citizens’ civil rights. C. The Supreme Court had every right to strike down state laws before the passage of the 14th Amendment. D. The 14th Amendment was opposed by all states. SECTION 5: Mathematics Knowledge Test Progress: ASVAB Practice Test 1 Questions 106 - 110 of 216 1: If x = 8, what’s the value of y in the equation y = (x 2 ÷ 4) − 2? A. 1 4 B. 16 C. 1 26 8 D. 2 0 2: The cube of 5 is: A. 12 5 B. 25 C. 15 D. 50 3: 2.5 × 33 = A. 22.5 B. 75.0 C. 67.5 D. 675. 0 4: The fourth root of 16 is: A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2 5: What’s the equation of a line that passes through points (0, -1) and (2, 3)? A. y = 2x − 1 B. y = 2x + 1