NURSING 201CNA Exam Prep Volume 2Completed

NURSING 201CNA Exam Prep Volume 2Completed SECTION ONE 1. ________ are people or organizations paying for health care services a. Payers b. Providers c. Facilities 2. LTC mean a. Length of care b. Length of cure ...

NURSING 201CNA Exam Prep Volume 2Completed SECTION ONE 1. ________ are people or organizations paying for health care services a. Payers b. Providers c. Facilities 2. LTC mean a. Length of care b. Length of cure c. Long term care 3. When an individual is expected to die from an illness, it is referred to as a a. Terminal illness b. Acute illness c. Chronic illness 4. Most conditions seen in long term care facilities are chronic a. True b. False 5. ________ care is given in hospitals and ambulatory surgical centers. a. Acute care b. Home healthcare c. Adult daycare 6. Which of the following care can be given in a hospital or in a long-term care facility? a. Hospice care b. Home Health care c. Sub-acute care 7. After removing gloves, you are not required to wash your hands. a. True b. False 8. Which of the following care is usually for 24 hours? a. Out-patient care b. Skilled Care 9. Daily personal care tasks are called a. Active daily living b. Activities in daily living c. Activities of daily living (ADLs) 10. A thin tube inserted into the body that is used to drain fluids or inject fluid is a. Drainage b. Catheter c. Intravenous 11. Which one of the following is defined as the loss of mental abilities, such as thinking, remembering, reasoning, and communicating? a. Dementia b. Stroke c. Acute coronary syndrome 12. What does "p" mean in PASS while operating a fire extinguisher?a. Pin b. Pull c. Point 13. __________ is a method, or way of doing something a. Procedure b. Policy c. Rules 14. Caucasian women make up a high percentage of residents in long term care facilities a. True b. False 15. Nursing assistants should accept money and gifts from residents a. True b. False 16. To cite means to a. Review a problem though a survey b. Find a problem through survey c. Create a problem through a survey 17. _________ is an independent not-for-profit organization that evaluates and accredits healthcare organizations. a. OSHA b. Health Care Finance Administration (HCFA) c. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) 18. Medicare and Medicaid pay long-term care facilities a fixed amount for services a. True b. False 19. Tuberculosis is ____________ transmitted. a. Blood-borne b. Airborne c. contact 20. People who live in long term care facilities are usually called a. Clients b. Residents c. Patients SECTION TWO Match the following1. CNA ___________ A. Direct plan activities for residents to help them socialize and stay physically and mentally active. 2. RN ___________ B. Determines residents' needs and helps get them support services such as counseling. 3. LPN/LVN ___________ C. Creates diets for resident with specials needs 4. MD/DO ____________ D. Help with speech and swallowing problems 5. PT E._____________ E. Helps residents learn to compensate for disabilities 6. OT ___________ F. Evaluates a person and develops a treatment plan to increase movement, improve circulation, promote healing 7. SLP _____________ G. Diagnose disease or disability and prescribe treatment 8. RD ______________ H. Licensed professional who has completed one to two years of education 9. MSW _____________ I. Licensed professional who has completed two to four years of education 10. Activity Director _______________ J. Performs delegated tasks such as taking vital signs, provides routine personal care, such as bathing residents and helping with toileting. 11. Professionalism means a. How you behave when you are on the job b. Having to do with work or a job c. Being late to work l2. Nursing assistants must be conscientious about documenting observations and procedures a. True b. False 13. ______________ is the ability to understand what is proper and appropriate when dealing with others a. Sympathy b. Tact c. Empathy Match the following 14. Compassionate ________ A. Put aside your opinions and see each resident as an individual who needs your care 15. Empathy ________ B. Give each resident the same quality care regardless of age, gender, race, ethnicity or condition 16. Sympathy ________ C. Valuing other individuality 17. Conscientious ________ D. Must make and keep commitments 18. Dependable _______ E. Always try to do their best 19. Respectful ______ F. Sharing in the feelings and difficulties of others 20. Unprejudiced _______ G. Entering into feeling of others 21. Tolerant _______ H. Being caring concerned, considerate, empathetic and Understanding 22. Which of the following is not included in personal grooming habits a. Dressing neatly in a uniform that is washed and ironed b. Keep fingernails short, smooth and clean c. Wearing little or no makeup d. None of the above 23. The chain of command describes the line of authority and helps ensure that the resident receive proper carea. True b. False 24. _______ defines the things you are allowed to do and how to do them correctly. a. Scope of practice b. Unprejudiced c. Compassionate d. Tolerant Match the following 25. Diagnosis _______ A. A careful examination to see if the goals are being met 26. Planning ________ B. Putting the care plan into action 27. Implementation ________ C. Setting goals and creating a care plan 28. Evaluation ________ D. Identifying the health problems after looking at all the resident's needs 29. Plan ahead _______ E. Identifying the most important things to get done 30. Prioritize _______ F. Best way to help manage your time better SECTION THREE 1. The knowledge of right and wrong isa. Laws b. Rules c. Ethics 2. _______ are usually based on ethics a. Laws b. Rules c. Abuse 3. Behaving ethically and following the law applies to all healthcare providers. a. True b. False 4. ________ set minimum standards for nursing assistant training a. OSHA b. OBRA c. MDS 5. The _______ is a detailed form with guidelines for assessing residents a. OBRA b. MDS c. OSHA 6. Residents' rights include which of the following a. The right to make independent choices b. The right to participate in their own care c. The right to privacy and confidentiality d. All of the above 7. ________ is the process by which a person, with the help of a doctor makes decisions about his or her healthcare after sufficient information. a. Living will b. Informed consent c. Power of attorney 8. Which of the following is a national non-profit organization founded in L975 to protect the rights, safety and dignity of long-term care residents a. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) b. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization(JCAHO) c. The National Citizens' Coalition for Nursing Home Reform (NCCNHR) Match the following 9. Neglect ________ A. another tool that help medical providers honor wishes about care 10. Active Neglect ________ B. Medical procedures to restart the heart and breathing 11. Passive Neglect ________ C. A signed dated and witness paper 12. Negligence ________ D. Takes effect while the person is still living 13. Malpractice ________ E. Legal documents that allow people to choose what medical care they wish to have... 14. Abuse ________ F. Any unwelcome sexual advance behavior that creates an offensive working environment 15. Involuntary Seclusion _______ G. Separating a person from others against the persons will 16. Sexual Harassment ________ H. Purposely causing Physical, mental or emotional pain or injury to someone17. Advanced directives _______ I. Occurs when a person is injured due to professional misconduct through negligence 18. Living will _______ J. The failure to act to provide the proper care for a resident that result in unintended injury 19. Durable power of attorney _______ K. Unintentionally harming a person physically or by failing to provide care 20. Do-not-resuscitate (DNR) _______ L. Purposely harming a person by failing to provide needed care. 21. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) __M. Harming a person physically or emotionally by failing to provide needed care 22. ______ are people who are legally required to report suspected or observed abuse or neglect a. Mandatory reporters b. News reported c. Mandated reporters 23. Which of the following is assigned by law as the legal advocate for residents a. Protected health information (PHl) b. Confidentiality c. Ombudsman 24. HIPAA means to a. Share private information with family members b. Keep patient information private c. Gives information to the public 25. Only people who give care or process records, should have access to protected health information 1. True 2. False SECTION FOUR 1. ________ is the process of exchanging information with others a. Compassionateb. Sympathy c. Communication 2. The communication process consists of which of the following a. Sender, receiver and feedback b. Signs, symbols and drawings c. Drawings, receiver, sender 3. Verbal communication involves the use of words or sounds, spoken or written a. True b. False 4. Body language often speaks as words a. True b. False 5. _______ is the way we communicate without using words a. Culture b. Nonverbal communication c. Verbal communication 6. A _______ is a system of learned behaviors, practiced by a group of people a. Cultural diversity b. Culture c. Bias 7. Positive responses to cultural diversity include which of the following a. Acceptance and knowledge b. Bias and knowledge c. None of these 8. Which of the following are barriers to communication a. Resident is difficult to understand b. Advice is given c. Resident cannot hear you d. All of the above 9. All of the following are ways to make communication accurate except a. Giving advice b. Let some pauses happen c. Ask for more 10. When helping residents, do not talk to other staff a. True b. False 11. A ______ is something that is definitely true a. Opinion b. Report c. Fact 12. An is something that is may not be true a. Opinion b. Report c. Fact13. Objective information is based on what you a. See b. Hear c. Touch or smell d. All of the above 14. _______ information is something you cannot or did not observe a. Objective b. Subjective c. Rejective l5. Incontinence is a. Inability to control moving b. Inability to control the bladder or bowels c. Inability to control breathing 16. A resident's skin is pale or blue. This is called a. Edema b. Syncope c. Cyanotic 17. Derma means a. Head b. Neck c. Skin 18. The suffix "itis" means a. Incontinence b. Incision c. Complication d. Inflammation 19. _______ is an accident or unexpected event during the course of care a. Incident b. Impairment c. Liability Match the following 20. Hemiplegia -- A. medical term for stroke 21. Hemiparesis -- B. difficulty swallowing 22. Expressive aphasia -- C. Inability to speak clearly 23. Receptive -- D. inability to speak clearly 24. Dysphasia -- E. weakness on one side of the body 25. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) -- F. Paralysis on one side the body SECTION FIVE 1. ______ is term for measures practiced in healthcare facilities to prevent and control the spread of disease 1. Medical asepsis 2. Microbes 3. Infection control2. A ______ is a living thing or organism that is so small that it can be seen only through a microscope a. Virus b. Microorganism c. Infection 3. What is another name for microorganism a. Microbe b. Amoeba c. Bacteria 4. Infection occur when harmful microorganisms called pathogens invade the body and multiply a. True b. False c. None of the above 5. Which of the following infection is in the blood stream and is spread throughout the body a. Healthcare-associated infection b. Localized infection c. Systemic infection 6. A is confined to a specific location in the body and has local symptoms a. Healthcare-associated infection b. Localized infection c. Systemic infection 7. ______ are infections that patients acquire within healthcare settings that result from treatment for other conditions a. Healthcare-associated infection b. Localized infection c. Systemic infection 8. _____ is the process of removing pathogens or the state of being free of pathogens a. Medical asepsis b. Surgical asepsis c. None of the above 9. What is the name given to the state of being free of all microorganisms not just pathogens a. Medical asepsis b. Surgical asepsis c. None of the above 10. The chain of infection is a. Is an uninfected person who could get sick b. Is a way of describing how disease is transmitted from one living being to another c. None of the above 11. Causative agents include which of the following a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. Fungi and protozoa d. All of the above 12. Examples of reservoirs include the a. Mouth b. Clothes c. Lungs, blood and the large intestine13. The ______ is anybody opening on an infected person that allows pathogens to leave such as the nose, mouth, eyes or a cut in the skin a. Portal of entry b. Portal of exit c. None of the above 14. Which of the following describes how the pathogen travels from one person to the next person a. Mode of transmission b. Susceptible host c. None of the above 15. ______ is the condition that results from inadequate fluid in the body a. Infection b. Diarrhea c. Malnutrition d. Dehydration l6. Centers for Disease Control and prevention (CDC) is a governmental agency under the department of health and human services a. True b. False c. None of the above 17. Hand antisepsis refers to a. Hand-washing with either plain or antiseptic soap and water and using alcohol-based hand rubs b. Washing hands with water and soap or other detergents that contain an antiseptic agent c. None of the above 18. A agent destroys or resists pathogen a. Microbes b. Microbial c. Antimicrobial 19. Personal protective equipment includes a. Gloves, gown b. Masks, goggles and face shields c. All of the above 20. ______ is a process that kills pathogens but not all microorganisms a. Disinfection b. Sterilization c. Disposal 21. Which of the following are symptoms of hepatitis a. Chest pain b. Trouble breathing c. Mucus d. None of the above 22. Tuberculosis usually infects the a. Brain b. Lungs c. Heart 23. MRSA stands for a. Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus b. Multidrug-resistantc. None of the above 24. ______ stands for vancomycin-resistant enterococcus a. HIV b. TB c. VRE 25. Which of the following is a spore forming bacteria which can be a part of the normal flora a. Enterococci b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Clostridium difficile SECTION SIX 1. Which of the following includes our 5 senses a. Sight and hearing b. Touch and smell c. Taste d. All of the above 2. ______ is the loss of ability to move all or part of the body a. Fracture b. Paralysisc. Sprain 3. It is very important to try to prevent accidents before they occur a. True b. False 4. A fracture is a. A broken bone b. A bleeding bone c. A severed bone 5. What fracture cause the greatest number of deaths and can lead to severe health problems a. Shoulder b. Leg c. Hip 6. The following factors increases the risk for falls, except. a. Poor lighting b. Upholstery c. Slippery or wet floor d. Throw rugs 7. ______ means confusion about person, place or time a. orientation b. disorientation c. identification 8. Never lock a wheel chair before transferring a resident into or out of it a. True b. False 9. What can be caused by dry heat ? a. Burns b. Cuts c. Scalds 10. Scalds are burns a. True b. False 11. ______ can occur when eating, drinking or swallowing medication a. Poisoning b. Gasping c. Slippery d. Choking 12. Residents must be sitting up straight when eating whether in a bed or a chair a. True b. False 13. An is an injury that rubs off the surface of the skin a. Abrasion b. Cut c. Scratch 14. ______ means the process of burninga. Flammable b. Smoking c. Combustion 15. Which of the following requires that all hazardous chemicals must have a material safety data sheet ? a. MRSA b. HIV c. OSHA 16. Which of the following are examples of physical restraints a. Mitt restraints b. Belt restraints c. Side rails d. All of the above 17. _______ is death from a lack of air or oxygen a. Suffocation b. Atrophy c. Syncope 18. Understanding some basic principles of body mechanisms will help keep you and residents safe a. True b. False 19. ______ is the way the parts of the body with together whenever you move a. Posture b. Center of gravity c. Body mechanics 20. Always try to catch a falling resident a. True b. False 21. Where does the center of gravity in your body point? a. Where the most weight is concentrated b. Where the least weight is concentrated c. Where no weight is concentrated 22. The wider your support the more stable you are a. True b. False 23. A ______ moves an object by resting on a base of support a. Alignment b. Lever c. Counter of gravity 24. When you stand your weight is centered in your pelvis a. True b. False 25. Do not twist while you are moving an object a. True b. FalseSECTION SEVEN 1. The first thing to do when you recognize a medical emergency is a. Turn on the AED b. Do nothing c. Assess the situation d. Start CPR 2. Which of the following means being mentally alert and having awareness of surroundings, sensations and thoughts? a. Conscious b. Breathing c. Unconscious d. None of the above 3. Checking a person for injury include all of the following excepta. Medical alert tags b. Applying restraints c. Severe bleeding d. Changes in consciousness 4. ______ is an emergency care given immediately to an injured person a. CPR b. Abdominal thrust c. BLS d. First aid 5. To open the airway you should use the a. Head tilt-chin lift b. Chin lift head tilt c. Both a and b d. None of the above 6. When giving CPR the correct rate of chest compressions to breaths are a. 15 chest compressions to l rescue breaths b. 30 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths c. 20 chest compressions to 1 rescue breaths d. 35 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths 7. AED stands for a. Automatic external defibrillator b. Auto external defibrillator c. Automated externally defibrillator d. Automated external defibrillator 8. Adequate breathing should be detected no longer than _____ seconds a. 15 b. 8.5 c. 10 d. 20 9. How could you tell when someone is choking a. He/she would put their hands to their throat and cough b. He/she would ask you to hit them on the back c. He/she would ask for a glass of water d. None of the above 10. The method of attempting to remove an object from the airway of someone who is choking is called a. Abdominal slaps b. Abdominal thrusts c. Depressions d. Compressions 11. What occurs when organs and tissues in the body do not receive an adequate blood supply? a. Choking b. Dyspnea c. Syncope d. Shock 12. Dyspnea means a. Difficulty breathing b. Difficulty smelling c. Painful breathingd. Both a and c 13. All of the following are signs and symptoms of Ml except a. Nausea and vomiting b. Perspiration c. Blurred vision d. Cold and clammy skin 14. What is the medical term used for heart attack? a. Myocardial Ischemia b. Myocardial infarction (Ml) c. Myocardium infarction d. None of the above 15. What should be done to control bleeding? a. With gloves on and clean, thick sterile pad press down hard directly on the bleeding wound until help arrive b. Press down hard directly on the bleeding wound with bare hands until help arrive c. Maintain normal body temperature d. All of the above 16. Which of the following is used to treat accidental poisoning a. Epsom salts b. Ipecac syrup c. Activated charcoal d. All of the above 17. _____ degree burns involves all three layers of the skin a. First degree b. Second degree c. Third degree d. Total degree 18. What is the medical term for fainting a. BLS b. Syncope c. Myocardial ischemia d. Myocardial infarction 19. Insulin reaction is also called a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hyperglycemia d. Hyperkalemia 20. _____ is caused by having too little insulin a. Hypoglycemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)/hyperglycemia d. None of the above 21. Which of the following is not a true statement about seizures a. Do not leave a person alone during a seizure b. Help the person get up slowly while having a seizure c. Do not give liquid or food d. Do not try to restrain the person 22. ______is a warning sign of a CVAa. Myocardial ischemia b. Syncope c. Emesis d. Epilepsy 23. Transient ischemic attack (TlA) is also known as a. Mini stroke b. Semi stroke c. Bi-lateral stroke d. Tri lateral stroke 24. The act of ejecting stomach contents through the mouth is a. Sputum b. Mucus c. Vomiting or emesis d. None of the above 25. Disasters can include a. Fire, flood b. Earthquake, hurricane c. Severe weather d. All of the above SECTION EIGHT 1. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's hierarchy of needs a. Self-esteem, belongingness, self-actualization b. Safety, physical needs, love and belongingness, security c. Self-actualization, self-esteem, belongingness and security d. Physical need, safety and security, love and belongingness, self-esteem and self-actualization 2. Considering a whole system such as a whole person rather than dividing the system up into parts a. Holistic b. Mental c. Independence d. None of the above 3. Which of the following is not a basic human physical need a. Safety b. Food and water c. Getting an ipad d. Comfort4. A loss of independence can cause which of the following a. Depression b. Poor self- image c. Feelings of being useless d. All of the above 5. _____ means to touch or rub sexual organs in order to give oneself or another person sexual pleasure a. Mensuration b. Masturbation c. Menstruation d. Menopause 6. A person who has a desire for persons of the same sex is called a a. Transsexual b. Bisexual c. Heterosexual d. Gay 7. A woman whose sexual orientation is to women a. Lesbian b. Gay c. Transsexual d. Bisexual 8. Spirituality means a. Relating to the spirit or soul b. Relating to the mind c. Relating to the way we conduct our selves d. None of the above Fill in the blank Atheists Buddhism Christianity Islam Judaism Islam 9. Believe that life is filled with suffering that caused by desire ______ 10. Believe Jesus Christ was the son of God and that he died so their sins would be forgiven ______ 11. Believe in reincarnation, karma and do not eat beef _______ 12. Pray five times a day facing Mecca, the holy city for their religion ______ 13. People who claim that there is no God ______ 14. Do not do work from Friday sundown to Saturday sundown ________ 15. Fasting means a. Eating vegan food b. Eating soul food c. Not eating food or eating very little food d. None of the above 16. ______ do not eat any animals or animal products such as eggs or dairy products. a. Vegetarian b. Vegans c. Ovo vegetarians d. Lacto vegetarians 17. A highly contagious viral disease that strikes nearly all children isa. Leukemia b. SIDS c. Ageism d. Chicken pox 18. ______ is a maltreatment include not providing adequate food, clothing or support a. Child neglect b. Trauma c. Premature d. Disability 19. School-age children age from a. 12 to 18 b. 3 to 6 c. 6 to 12 d. 18 to 40 20. _______ is a form of cancer a. Chicken pox b. Bulimia c. Leukemia d. SIDS 21. What is the study of health, wellness and disease later in life a. Gerontology b. Geriatrics c. Ageism d. Cognitive 22. The study of the aging process in people from mid-life through old age is called a. Scientology b. Geriatrics c. Zoology d. Gerontology 23. Prejudice towards stereotyping of against older persons or the elderly is called a. Ageism b. Anorexia c. Old age d. Gigantism 24. ______ refer to disabilities that are at birth or emerge during child-hood a. Developmental disabilities b. Down syndrome c. Spina bifida d. Cerebral palsy 25. Spina bifida literally means a. Crack spine b. Rip spine c. Split spine d. Age spineSECTION NINE 1. What is the name for the condition in which all of the body's systems are working at their best a. Homeostasis b. Hormones c. Glands d. Digestion 2. The body is divided into ______ systems. a. 7 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11 3. Body systems are made up of a. Cells b. Glands c. Tissues d. Organs 4. What are the building block of our bodiesa. Organs b. Cells c. Tissues d. Glands 5. Posterior or dorsal means a. Away from the body b. The back of the body or body part c. The front of the body or body part d. Closer to the torso 6. The largest organ and system in the body is the a. Skin b. Endocrine c. Reproductive d. Musculoskeletal 7. Normal changes of aging include which of the following a. Skin is less elastic b. Nails are harder and more brittle c. Hair thins and may turn gray d. All of the above 8. Which of the following is not a part of the skin a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Epicardium d. Subcutaneous 9. How many bones are there in the human body? a. 206 b. 210 c. 220 d. 212 10. The point at where two bones meet is called a a. Tissue b. Contract c. Glands d. Joint 11. ______ provide movement of body parts to maintain posture and to produce heat a. Joint b. Muscles c. Cells d. Organs 12. Which of the following is not included in normal changes of aging a. Bone loss density b. Muscles weaken and lose tone c. Height is gradually lost d. Grow 6 inches taller 13. Which one of the following is the two main parts of the nervous system a. Central nervous system (CNS) b. Peripheral nervous system c. A and Bd. None of the above 14. The three main sections of the brain are a. Cerebrum b. Brainstem c. Cerebellum d. All of the above 15. The outer part of the eye is called a. Sclera b. Retina c. Iris d. Cornea 16. Ear wax and hair in the ear protect the ear from a. Light b. Foreign objects c. Water d. None of the above 17. The heart is an a. Bone b. Organ c. Muscle d. Artery 18. The contracting phase of the heart is the a. Expiration b. Diastole c. Systole d. Inspiration 19. The resting phase of the heart is the a. Diastole b. Respiration c. Inspiration d. Expiration 20. Normal changes of aging include which of the following a. Voice weakens b. Lung capacity decreases c. Lung strength decreases d. All of the above 21. _______ is the process of expelling solid wastes made up of the waste products of food that are not absorbed into cells a. Digestion b. Ingestion c. Absorption d. Elimination 22. Fecal/anal incontinence is the a. Inability to control the bowels b. Inability to control urine c. Inability to control drooling d. Inability to control bleeding 23. The reproductive system allows human beings to _______a. Multiply b. Separate c. Reproduce d. None of the above 24. ______ protects against a particular disease that is invading the body at a given time a. Acquired immunity b. Specific immunity c. Nonspecific immunity d. Invading immunity 25. What is the name of the clear yellowish fluid that carries disease-fighting cells called lymphocytes a. Sperm b. Lymph c. Gonads d. None of the above SECTION TEN 1. ______ means helping residents into positions that will be comfortable and healthy for them a. Positioning b. Homeostasis c. Holistic 2. In the _____ position the resident lies flat on his back a. Lateral b. Prone c. Supine 3. A person in the ______ position is lying on his or her back a. Prone b. Lateral c. Supine 4. A person lying in the ______ position is lying on his or her stomach a. Prone b. Sims c. Fowlers 5. A person lying in the ______ position is partially reclined a. Prone b. Sims c. Fowlers6. A draw sheet is an extra sheet placed on top of the bottom sheet a. True b. False 7. ______ is rubbing or friction that results from the skin moving one way and the bone underneath it remaining fixed or moving in the opposite direction a. Shearing b. Bearing c. Shaving 8. Moving a resident as a unit, without disturbing alignment of the body is a. Block rolling b. Wood rolling c. Log rolling 9. To means to sit up with the feet over the side of the bed for a moment to regain a. Balance b. Swing c. Dangle d. Shake 10. The science of designing equipment and work tasks to suit the workers abilities a. Transfer board b. Ergonomics c. Gait belt 11. A ______ is a safety device used to transfer residents who are weak, unsteady or uncoordinated a. Transfer belt b. Gait belt c. Safety belt 12. Where should the gait belt be placed? a. Around both legs of the resident b. Around the waist of resident over clothing c. On the wheel chair 13. What is the name of the equipment that can help transfer residents? a. Back belt b. holding belt c. Gait belt 14. A stretcher is another word for a. Cane b. Gurney c. Crutch 15. Which of the following equipment prevents wear and tear on your body a. Stretcher b. Mechanical or hydraulic lift c. Sling 16. Which of the following statements are not true about a mechanical lift? a. You and the resident would not get hurt if you use the lift improperly b. You must be trained on the specific lift you will be using c. Lifts help prevent injury to you and the resident17. Which of the following statements are true about transferring a resident onto and off a toilet a. Position wheelchair at a right angle to toilet b. Ask resident to push against the arm rests of the wheelchair and stand c. All of the above 18. What is another word for walking? a. Ambulation b. Pacing c. Moving 19. A resident who is ambulatory is a. One who can move in bed b. One who can get out of bed and walk c. None of the above 20. The purpose of a cane is to a. Help with balance b. Help visually impaired resident c. None of the above 21. The ______ cane is a straight cane with a curved handle at the top a. C cane b. Quad cane c. Functional grip cane 22. This type of cane has a grip handle rather than a curved handle a. C cane b. Quad cane c. Functional grip cane 23. Which cane is designed to bear more weight than the other canes a. C cane b. Quad cane c. Functional grip cane 24. What equipment can be used when the resident can bear some weight on the legs a. Walker b. Cane c. Crutches 25. Residents who can bear no weight or limited weight on the leg use a. Walker b. Cane c. CrutchesSECTION ELEVEN Fill in the blanks Wants, them time, condition consciousness confused introduce position Friendly formal resident arrives bed tidy admission kit welcome, wanted tour valuables 1. Prepare the room before the resident _______ 2. Make sure the ______ is made and the room is ________ 3. A ________ is usually in the patient room before he/she is admitted 4. When a new resident arrives at the facility note the ________ and ________ 5. Observe the new resident for level of ______ and if he/she seems ________ 6. ______ yourself and state your ________ 7. Smile and be ________ 8. Always call the person by his/her ________ name until they tell you what they want to be call 9. Never rush the new ______ 10. Make sure the new resident feel ________ and ________ 11. Offer to take the resident on a ______ 12. Ask the new resident if he/she brought any ______ 13. Place personal items where the resident _________ True and False 14. Providing fresh water is something you should do every time you leave a resident's room15. Report any changes in resident's weight to the nurse 16. Residents do not have the right to receive advance notice of any room or roommate change 17. Sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure 18. Alcohol wipes cannot be used for infection and minor wound care l9. Otoscope is an instrument used to examine the eye 20. The dorsal recumbent position is used to examine the chest, breasts and abdomen 21. Lithotomy position is used to examine the rectum 22. To determine height on a standing scale gently lower the measuring rod until it rests flat on the resident's head 23. Admission kit will contain a urine specimen cup, personal care items, drinking glass, tooth paste and soap 24. Resident should not be told of their rights until after admission 25. The room should be prepare when the new resident arrives SECTION TWELVE True and false 1. Illness and disability cause great stress 2. Common noises in facilities can upset and irritate residents 3. Caffeinated drinks such as coffee or some teas do not prevent sleep, fatigue and irritability 4. A resident room is not his/her home and should not be treated with respect 5. Providing a clean, safe and orderly environment is an essential part of your job 6. Normally Beds are kept at their highest horizontal position 7. The water pitcher and cup are kept in the bedside stand drawer 8. It is important to always place the call light within the resident's reach 9. Curtains and screens block sounds from the other rooms 10. You do not have to wear gloves when rinsing bedpans and urinals 11. Sleep is a natural period of rest for the mind and body 12. The circadian rhythm is 24 hour day night cycle 13. Insomnia is the lack of ability to fall asleep or stay asleep 14. Sheets that are damp, wrinkled or bunched up under a resident is not uncomfortable 15. Hold soiled linen close to your body and place it in the proper container immediately 16. An occupied bed is a bed made while the resident is not in it 17. It is easier to make a bed when the resident is in it18. Hospital corners help keep the flat sheet smooth under the resident 19. A close bed is a bed completely made with the bedspread and blankets in place 20. A surgical bed is made to accept residents who are returning to bed on stretchers or gurney 21. Good lighting is not important to residents 22. Always knock and wait to receive permission before entering 23. If resident seem sad, anxious, or fearful just ignore them 24. You do not have to keep a resident room neat and clean 25. An emesis basin is a kidney-shaped basin often used when giving mouth care SECTION THIRTEEN 1. ______ is the term used to describe practices to keep our bodies clean and healthy a. Hygiene b. Grooming c. ADL d. None of the above 2. What is referred to as practices like caring for fingernails and hair a. Hygiene b. Grooming c. ADL d. None of the above 3. Which of the following is not included in a.m. care a. Offering a bedpan b. Giving a back rub c. Helping the resident to wash face and hands d. Assisting with mouth care before breakfast 4. ______ are areas of the body that bear much of its weight a. Pressure sores b. Bony prominences c. Pressure points d. None of the above 5. The areas of the body where the bone lies close to the skin is a. Pressure sore b. Pressure points c. Hygiene d. Bony prominences6. A pressure sore is also called a a. Decubitus ulcer b. Pressure points c. Broken skin d. None of the above 7. How many stages of pressure sores exists? a. 2 b. 4 c. 3 d. 5 8. In what stage is the full skin loss with major destruction a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 4 d. Stage 3 9. In what stage is the skin intact but there is redness that is not relieved within 15 to 30 minutes? a. Stage 4 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 1 10. A skin may be placed under the resident to absorb moisture a. Goat, pig b. Cow, dog c. Sheep, chamois d. None of the above 11. ______ heel protectors help keep feet properly aligned and prevent pressure sores a. Stuffed b. Padded c. Packed d. Shield 12. There are many types of ointments, creams and lotions that are used to treat, soften and protect the skin a. True b. False c. Maybe d. None of the above 13. ______ is a weakness of muscles in the feet and ankles that causes difficulty with the ability to flex the ankles and walk normally a. Foot pop b. Foot roll c. Foot curl d. Foot drop 14. What help prevent foot drop? a. Footboards b. Foot stools c. Foot roll d. Foot curls 15. Hand rolls does not keep fingers from curling too tightly a. Trueb. False 16. A is a device such as a splint or brace that helps support and align a limb and improve its function a. Splint device b. Brace device c. Orthotic device d. Pillow device 17. The perineum is the a. Vocal and skin area b. Mucus and genital area c. Genital and back area d. Genital and anal area 18. A is a substance added to another substance changing its effect a. Additive b. Subtractive c. Partial d. None of the above 19. Common sites for pressure sores are a. Thigh b. Shoulder c. Chest, nose and hands d. None of the above 20. The is the area from the pubis to the upper thighs a. Buttock b. Groin c. Abdomen d. Perineal 21. A ________ is a sturdy chair designed to be placed in a bathtub or shower a. Geri chair b. Wheel chair c. Shower chair d. None of the above 22. Pediculosis is an a. Infestation of mice b. Infestation of pest c. Infestation of bugs d. Infestation of lice 23. ______ is an excessive shedding of dead skin cells from the scalp a. Scab b. Dandruff c. Scratch d. Crack 24. The medical term for bad breath is a. Edentulous b. Aspiration c. Halitosis d. Pediculosis 25. Edentulous meansa. Having no teeth b. Having no sweat c. Having no pain d. Having bad breath SECTION FOURTEEN 1. Which of the following is the normal temperature range for the oral method a. 96.6 - 98.6 degrees F b. 97.9 - 100.6 degrees F c. 97.6 - 99.6 degrees F d. 95.6 - 98.9 degrees F 2. Which of the following is the normal temperature range for the rectal method a. 98.6 - 100.6 degrees F b. 96.7 - 98.6 degrees F c. 95.5 - 98.9 degrees F d. 98.6 - 99.9 degrees F 3. Which of the following is another word for mouth a. Axillary b. Rectal c. Tympanic d. Oral 4. Which of the following is another word for ear a. Axillary b. Rectal c. Tympanic d. Oral 5. Oral thermometers are usually a. Yellow b. Green or blue c. Black d. Lavender 6. Rectal thermometers are usually ______ in color a. Yellow b. Green c. Blued. Red 7. Which temperature is considered to be the most accurate? a. Rectal b. Oral c. Tympanic d. Axillary 8. Which temperature is considered to be the least accurate? a. Oral b. Tympanic c. Axillary d. Rectal 9. Why are mercury free thermometers safer than the mercury thermometers? a. They are more expensive than mercury thermometers b. They do not contain dangerous substance like mercury c. They are easier to read than mercury thermometers d. They are easier to hold 10. Where is the most common site for monitoring the pulse located a. In between the elbow and the shoulder b. In between the thigh and the leg c. On the feet d. On the inside of the wrist 11. Where is the brachial pulse located a. In between the elbow and the shoulder b. On the side of the neck c. On the feet d. On the left side of the chest 12. Which of the following is not a common pulse site? a. Radial b. Apical c. Femoral d. All of the above 13. A is an instrument designed to listen to sounds within the body a. Sphygmomanometer b. Stethoscope c. Pen d. Thermometer 14. What is the process of breathing air into the lungs? a. Perspiration b. Dyspnea c. Respiration d. Expiring l5. Count the heart beat for full minute to measure apical pulse a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4 16. The normal respiration rate for adults ranges froma. 40 to 60 b. 12 to 16 c. 15 to 30 d. 12 to 20 17. Infants normally breathe at a rate of ______ to ______ cycles per minute a. 24 to 30 b. 15 to 35 c. 30 to 40 d. 12 to 16 True and false 18. Heat relieves pain and muscular tension 19. Hot application can stop bleeding 20. Ice packs is considered to be a dry applicator 21. Disposable heat compresses are used more than once and then discarded 22. Sitz baths clean perineal wounds and reduce inflammation and pain 23. Sterile dressing do not cover open or drain wounds 24. IV stands for intravenous or into a vein 25. A nasal cannula is a piece of metal tubing that fits around the faceSECTION FIFTEEN 1. ______ is how the body uses food to maintain health a. Carbohydrates b. Nutrition c. Fats d. Protein 2. What is something found in food that provides energy, promote good health and helps regulate metabolism a. Oil b. Fat c. Vegetables d. Nutrient 3. Promotes growth a. Protein b. Grains c. Minerals d. Fruits 4. Carbohydrates are basically needed for a. growth b. strength c. None of the above 5. Fats help the body store ______ a. Vegetables b. Fruits c. Energy d. Milk 6. Vitamins ______, ______, ______ and ______ are fat-soluble vitamins a. A, D, E and K b. B, C and D c. K, B, and E d. None of the above 7. Which of the following is not an example of a mineral a. Zinc, ironb. Calcium c. Magnesium d. Vitamin b 8. One- half to two-thirds of our body weight is a. Fat b. Water c. Food d. Blood 9. Calcium is used for building ______ and ______. a. Hair and skin b. Fingers and toes c. Bones and teeth d. Nose and mouth 10. _______ are the major source of monounsaturated fats (MUFA) a. Oils b. Milk c. Beans d. Meat True or false 11. Physical activity and nutrition work together for better health 12. Many elderly people take a variety of medications which can affect the way food smells and tastes 13. Thickened liquid include water and juice 14. Nasogastric tube are inserted in through the stomach l5. Nursing assistants are responsible for inserting and discontinuing tubes 16. Food likes and dislikes are influenced by what you eat as a child 17. The dietary department also makes diet cards Match the following 18. Low sodium diet _____ A. Nothing by mouth 19. Dysphagia _____ B. Restricted protein 20. Vegetarians _____ C. clear juices, broth, gelatin and popsicles 21. High-potassium diets _____ D. Helps with constipation 22. NPO ______ E. Do not eat fish or poultry 23. Low-protein diet _____ F. No salt added 24. Liquid diet _____ G. Get food high in potassium (Banana, grapefruit) 25. High-residue diet _____ H. Difficulty swallowingSECTION SIXTEEN 1. Urination is also known as a. Number 1 b. Defaecation c. Micturition or voiding d. None of the above 2. Urine is made up of a. Fruits and vegetables b. Water and dye c. Mucus and water d. Water and waste products 3. Adults should produce about to ____ mL of urine per day a. 2000 to 4000 b. 1200 to 1500 c. 400 to 600 d. 60 to 100 4. Urine is normally in color a. Pale yellow to amber b. Pale pink to red c. Pale yellow to orange d. Green to blue 5. A healthy person needs to take in from ______ of fluid each day a. 30 to 60 ounces b. 20 to 40 ounces c. 50 to 70 ounces d. 64 to 96 ounces 6. ______ is a bedpan that is flatter than the regular bedpan a. Woven pan b. Twisted pan c. Fracture pan d. Standard pan 7. Urinary tract infection (UTl) causes a. Inflammation of the kidney and nephron b. Inflammation of the bladder and ureters c. Inflammation of the perineal aread. None of the above 8. Another name for kidney stones is a. Calculi b. Calculus c. Catheter d. Cystitis 9. Which of the following is not a symptom of calculi? a. Groin pain b. Chills, fever c. Sore throat d. Flank or back pain 10. Inflammation of the kidneys is a. Cystitis b. Nephritis c. Edema d. None of the above 11. ______ is a condition in which a blockage of arteries in the kidneys causes high blood pressure a. Ranovascular hypertension b. Rinovascular hypertension c. Renovascular hypotension d. Renovascular hypertension True OR False l2. Excessive salt in the diet can also cause damage to the kidney 13. A catheter is a thick tube inserted in the body l4. Nursing assistant insert, remove and irrigate catheter 15. Straight catheter remains inside the body 16. Indwelling catheter is removed immediately after urine is drained 17. Kidney dialysis is an artificial means of removing the body's waste products 18. A specimen is a sample that is used for analysis in order to try make a diagnosis l9. A clean catch specimen is also called mid-stream because the first and last is not included 20. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14 2l. Normal pH of urine range from 8.4 - 9.0 22. Kidney stones are produced when the body burns fat for fuel 23. Illness and diseases can cause blood to appear in the urine 24. Always show anger and frustration toward resident who are incontinent 25. Never report changes in skin colorSECTION SEVENTEEN True and false 1. Defecation or bowel elimination is the passing of feces from the large intestine out of the body through the anus 2. Feces is also called stool or bowel movement 3. Stool is normally black, hard and formed in a tubular shape 4. Certain food can change the color of stool 5. Liquid stool should be reported to the nurse 6. As a person ages peristalsis increase 7. Raw fruits and vegetables are high in fiber which helps with bowel movement 8. Constipation is the ability to eliminate urine Fill in the blank BRAT Colitis Malabsorption Harris flush Weakening Peptic Ulcers 120 ml Blood Worms and amoebas Occult Colon cancer Enema Fecal impaction Hemorrhoids DiarrheaFlatus or gas lactose intolerance 9. A specific amount of water with or without an additive that is introduced into the colon to eliminate stool is ______ 10. A ______ is a hard stool that is stuck in the rectum and cannot be expelled 11. ______ are enlarged veins in the rectum that may also be visible outside the anus 12. Frequent elimination of liquid or semi-liquid feces is called ______ 13. Flatulence is also called ______ or ______ 14. The inability to digest lactose a type of sugar found in milk and other dairy products is called _______ 15. A diet of bananas, rice, applies and tea/ toast is also called ________ diet 16. Irritable bowel movement syndrome which is a chronic form of stomach upset that gets worse from stress is ______ 17. ________ means that the body cannot absorb or digest a particular nutrient properly 18. A return-flow enema also called a _______ may be ordered to expel the flatus l9. Heartburn is the result of a ________ of the sphincter muscle which joins the esophagus and the stomach 20. _______ are raw sores in the stomach or the small intestine 21. Colorectal cancer also known as ________ is cancer of the gastrointestinal tact 22. A commercially-prepared enema usually has ________ solution and may have additives23. Stool specimens are collected so that the stool can be tested for ________ 24. ________ and _________ can be detected with an ova and parasites test 25. ________ means something that is hidden or difficult to see or observe SECTION EIGHTEEN Fill in the blank Vaginitis Sarcoptes scabiei hyperthyroidism myocardial infarction angina pectoris Atherosclerosis glaucoma safe spinal cord impairments circulation Parkinson Right CVA complimentary medicine amputation muscular dystrophy (MD) Closed women autoimmune illness ringworm itching inflammation wound shingles 1. Scabies is a skin condition caused by a tiny mite called _______ 2. ______ is also called herpes zoster 3. A _____ is a type of injury to the skin 4. Dermatitis is a general term that refers to an _______ or swelling of the skin 5. Early signs of stasis dermatitis include rash, a scaly red area and _________ 6. _______ is a fungal infection that causes red, ring-like patches to appear on the upper body, hands and feet 7. Arthritis may be the result of aging, injury or an ___________ 8. Osteoporosis is more common in _______ after menopause 9. A ________ fracture is a broken bone that does not break the skin 10. _________ refers to several progressive diseases that cause a variety of physical disabilities due to muscle weakness 11. What is the removal of some or all of a body part, usually a foot, hand arm or leg 12. Treatment that are used in addition to the conventional treatments prescribed by a doctor is refer to as ________ 13. ________ or stroke is caused when the blood supply to the brain is cut off suddenly by a clot or a ruptured blood vessel 14. Weaknesses on the _________ side show that the left side of the brain was affected 15. A person with __________ disease may have a mask-like facial expression 16. Range of motion exercises help prevent contractures, strengthen muscles and increase ___________ 17. Multiple sclerosis is an unpredictable disease that causes varying symptoms and __________ 18. People with _______ injury may have paraplegia or loss of function of lower body and legs 19. During a seizure the main goal of the caregiver is to make sure that the resident is _____________ 20. _________ is a disease that causes the pressure in the eye to increase 21. Hypertension is caused by ______ or hardening and narrowing of the blood vessels 22. The medical term for chest pain is ___________ 23. The medical term for heart attack is ___________24. When the thyroid produces too much thyroid hormone the cells burn too much food this is called _________ 25. _________ is an infection of the vagina SECTION NINETEEN (Match to the correct answer) 1. Cognition _ A. a progressive degenerative and irreversible disease 2. Confusion _ B. the time of signs and symptoms 3. Delirium _ C. disease or condition cannot be cured 4. Dementia _ D. disease gets worse 5. Progressive _ E. disease is advance 6. Degenerative _ F. ability to think logically and quickly 7. Onset _ G. State of severe confusion 8. Irreversible_ H. serious loss of mental abilities 9. Alzheimer's disease _ I. inability to think clearly 10. In this stage of Alzheimer's the resident would be disoriented to time a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV 11. Which of the following is included in stage II Alzheimer's a. Temper tantrums b. Incontinence c. Inability to read, write or do math d. All of the above 12. Which of the following is not included in stage III Alzheimer's a. Difficulty swallowing b. Mood swings c. Inability to recognize family or self d. Increased sleep disturbances 13. People with Alzheimer's disease will not show all the symptoms at the same time a. True b. False c. None of the above d. C only 14. When residents say the same words, phrases or questions or over and over, this is called a. Reservationb. Preservation c. Presumption d. Repetition 15. Which one of the following words means a way to change an action or development? a. Determination b. Intervention c. Reservation d. Prevention 16. A resident who is excited, restless or troubled is said to be a. Triggers b. Sun downing c. Agitated d. None of the above l7. When a person gets restless and agitated in the late afternoon, evening or night it is called a. Triggers b. Sun downing c. Agitated d. None of the above 18. When a person with Alzheimer's disease overreacts to something in an unreasonable way it is called a a. Sun setting b. sun downing c. violent behavior d. Catastrophic reaction 19. A resident attacks, hits or threatens someone is a. disruptive b. violent c. alzhermic d. dementic 20. Walking back and forth in the same area is called. a. Pacing b. wandering c. Sun downing d. none of the above 21. A resident who sees things that are not there is having______. a. Hallucinations b. depression c. delusions d. none of the above 22. A resident who believes things in a physical disease he has that is not there is suffering from ______. a. hallucinations b. depression c. Hypochondriac delusion d. none of the above 23. _________ is taking things that belong to someone else a. sun downing b. catastrophic reaction c. hoarding d. pillaging24. Collecting and putting things away in a guarded way is known as a. pillaging b. validating c. hoarding d. all of the above 25. Validating means a. taking things of value b. touching others c. putting a stamp on everything d. giving value to or approvingSECTION TWENTY MATCH 1. Mental health ----- A. Repeated use of legal or illegal drugs 2. Mental illness ----- B. A method of treating mental illness 3. Fallacy ------ C. Form of disease that centers mainly on hallucinations and delusions 4. Denial ------ D. Lack of interest in activities 5. Projection ------ E. Anxiety caused by a traumatic experience 6. Displacement ------ F. Behavior a person uses to cope with anxiety 7. Rationalization ------ G. Causes a person to swing from deep depression to extreme activity 8. Repression ------ H. A person is terrified for no known reason 9. Regression ------- I. My cause a person to lose interest in everything l0. Anxiety ------- J. A brain disorder that affects a person's ability to think 11. Phobias ------- K. Intense form of anxiety 12. Claustrophobia ------ L. The fear of being in confined space 13. Panic disorder ------ M. Uneasiness or fear 14. Obsessive compulsive ------ N. Going back to an old immature behavior 15. Post-traumatic stress ------- O. Not remembering sexual abuse 16. Apathy ------ P. Everybody does it 17. Schizophrenia ------- Q. Transferring a strong negative feeling to a safer situation 18. Major depression ------- R. My teacher hates me 19. Manic depression ------- S. Completely rejecting the thought or feeling 20. Paranoid schizophrenia -------- T. False belief 21. Psychotherapy ------ U. A disease 22. Substance abuse ------- V. Normal functioning of emotional and intellectual abilities 23. Social interaction can promote mental and physical health a. True b. False c. None of the above 24. Common symptoms of anxiety include which of the following a. Muscle aches b. Dry mouth c. Shakinessd. All of the above 25. Which of the following is not a common symptom of schizophrenia a. Lack of energy b. Irritability c. Little or no interest in surroundings SECTION TWENTY ONE MATCH 1. Rehabilitation ------ A. Use when resident cannot move on their own 2. Trapeze ------- B. Performed by resident himself 3. Prosthesis ------ C. Moving body part away from the midline of the body 4. ROM ------ D. moving body part towards the midline of the body 5. PROM ------ E. Bending backward 6. AROM -------- F. Device that replaces a body part 7. AAROM -------- G. Turning a joint 8. Abduction ------ H. Triangular piece of equipment that hangs over the head of the bed 9. Adduction ------- I. Straightening a body part 10. Dorsiflexion ------ J. Bending a body part 11. Rotation ------ K. Turning upward l2. Extension ----- L. Care that is managed by professionals to help restore a person 13. Flexion ------- M. Turning downward l4. Pronation ------ N. Done by the resident with some assistance 15. Supination ------ O. Exercise that puts a joint through its full arc of motion Fill in the blank lncentive spirometer lungs increase circulation belts, cuffs or suction trapeze plate guard Lower high blood pressure physical and mental health rehabilitation 16. _________ and restorative care is one of the great joy of working as a care giver 17. Exercise is important for improving and maintaining _________ and ___________ health 18. Exercising with ___________ can be risky 19. Cool-down exercises are done to slowly ________ the heart rate 20. ____________ prevent food from being pushed off the plate and make it easier to scoop food onto utensils 21. People in bed can grasp a _________ with their hands which enables them to lift themselves 22. Most artificial limbs are attached by __________________ 23. The goal of ROM is to decrease or prevent contractures, improve strength and ________________ 24. Deep breathing exercise help expand the ________ clearing them of mucus and preventing infections 25. _____________ are used for deep breathing exercisesSECTION TWENTY TWO True and false 1. Sub-acute care is a kind of specialized care that falls between acute care and long term care 2. Dialysis cleanses the body of waste that the kidneys cannot remove due to chronic kidney failure 3. Anesthesia medication do not help pain 4. Before surgery there will be an order for the patient to eat as much as they want 5. A person who is having surgery will require preoperative physical preparation as well 6. NPO means you can have water but no food 7. Postoperative care begins right after surgery 8. A pulse oximeter is an invasive device that uses a light to determine the amount of oxygen in the blood 9. Normal blood oxygen level usually measures between 95% and 100% l0. Telemetry is used to measure the heart rhythm and rate on a continuous basis 11. An artificial airway is any plastic, metal or rubber device inserted into the respiratory tract to maintain or promote breathing l2. There is only one type of artificial airway 13. A sensor is a clip on a person’s finger, earlobe, or toe Fill in the blank Doctor nostrils flaring membrane, covers, protects constipation compassionate pleural cavity chest tube mucus, secretions sedative larynx mechanical ventilation tracheostomy 14. One type of artificial airway is a __________ 15. _________ is using a machine to assist with or replace breathing when a person is unable to do this on their own 16. The vocal cord is also called the _________ 17. A _________ is an agent or drug that helps calm and soothe a person and may cause sleep 18. Suctioning removes _________ and __________ from the lungs 19. _____________ are hollow drainage tubes that are inserted into the chest during a sterile procedure 20. The __________ is the space between the layers of the pleura 21. Patients often have many worries before surgery but a __________ response by staff may help alleviate concerns 22. Complications of surgery can also include urinary retention or infections, ________, blood pressure variance and blood clots 23. The pleura is the thin _______ that ________ and _________ the lungs 24. Signs of respiratory distress include _____________ 25. A _________ normally inserts test tubesSECTION TWENTY THREE 1. __________ is a disease or condition that will eventually cause death a. Stroke b. Denial c. Terminal illness d. None of the above 2. Who researched and wrote about the grief process? a. Elizabeth kubler-Ross b. Abraham Maslow c. Erik Erikson d. Rick Dickson 3. Which of the following includes the five stages of death and dying? a. Denial, shock, anger, guilt, depression b. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance c. Anger, depression, regret, loneliness, pain d. Pain, hunger, thirst, guilt, fear 4. Slow irregular respirations or rapid shallow respirations are called ___________ a. Cheryl-stokes b. Cherry-stokes c. Chin-stokes d. Cheyne-stokes 5. When the muscles in the body become stiff and rigid this is called a. Rigor mortis b. Reggae mortis c. Roger mortis d. Rogain mortis 6. ____________ is care of the body after death a. Premortem care b. Palliative care c. Personal care d. Postmortem care 7. Rigor mortis is a _______ for stiffness of death a. Greek word b. Latin word c. French word d. German word 8. Which of the following is the removal of organs and tissues for the purpose of transplanting into someone who needs them a. Organic donation b. Oregon donation c. Organ donation d. Oregano donation9. PCA means a. Patient-controlled analgesia b. Patient-care analysis c. Patient-comfort analysis d. None of the above Match the following 10. Denial ------ A. May be surprise of the death of our love ones 11. Anger ------ B. May regret things we said or did not say 12. Bargaining ------- C. We may cry or feel emotionally unstable 13. Depression -------- D. Missing someone who has died 14. Acceptance ------- E. The practices we grow up with 15. Shock ------ F. Allow people to choose what medical care they want or do not want 16. Regret -------- G. Plan for their last days or ceremony 17. Sadness -------- H. Denying or refusing to believe we are grieving 18. Loneliness -------- I. Cry or withdraw 19. Cultural background --------- J. make promises to God 20. Advance directive ----------- K. We may be angry with ourselves or God True and false 21. A person who is dying may become depressed and withdrawn 22. The goal of hospice are comfort and dignity of the resident 23. Being a good listener can be a great help to a dying resident and his/her family 24. A DNR tells medical professionals to perform CPR 25. A dying resident's room should be softly lit without glareSECTION TWENTY FOUR Fill in the blank lmprove constructive polite internet health regularly proud support tolerance stressor stress l-2 hours OBRA suggestions criticism B, C job description lie criminal resume called potential hands-on lab technicians direct service 1. Nursing assistants, doctors and nurses all provide ________ 2. ________ may conduct tests to help diagnose a condition 3. Chiropractors perform __________ manipulations or adjustments of the spine or other joints 4. To find a job you must first fine __________ employers 5. References are people who can be ___________ to recommend you as an employee 6. A __________ is a summary or listing of relevant job experience and education 7. Never _________ on your job application 8. By law employer must perform a ___________ background check on all new aides hired 9. A ____________ is an agreement between the employer and the employee 10. Hepatitis __________ and ___________ are blood borne diseases that that can cause death 11. Handling ______ is hard for most people 12. Ask for ________ when receiving constructive criticism 13. _________ requires that each state keep a registry of nursing assistants 14. The federal government requires that nursing assistants have __________ of continuing education 15.________ is a state of being frightened, excited, confused, in danger or irritated 16. Something that causes stress is a ____________ 17. Your _________ of stress depends on your personality, life experiences and physical health 18. ____________ groups can help you deal with different types of stress 19. Be _________ of the work you have chosen to do. It is important 20. Exercise _______ is one way to decrease stress 21. ____________ health educators and prevention professionals teach the general population or specific populations 22. Searching the ________ is one good way to find a job 23. Be _______ and make eye contact while interviewing 24. Hostile criticism and _______ criticism are not the same thing 25. Constructive criticism is meant to help you __________ANSWERS SECTION ONE 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. True 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. True 15. False 16. B 17. C 18. True 19. B 20. B SECTION TWO 1. J 2. I 3. H 4. G 5. F 6. E 7. D 8. C 9. B10. A 11. A l2. True 13. B 14. H 15. G 16. F 17. E 18. D 19. C 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. True 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. F 30. E SECTION THREE 1. C 2. A 3. True 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. M 10. L 11. K 12. J 13. I14. H 15. G 16. F 17. E 18. D 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. True SECTION FOUR 1. C 2. A 3. True 4. True 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. True 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. F 21. E 22. D23. C 24. B 25. A SECTION FIVE 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. True 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. D l6. True 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. C SECTION SIX 1. D 2. B 3. True 4. A 5. C6. B 7. B 8. False 9. A 10. True 11. D l2. True 13. A 14. C 15. C 16. D 17. A 18. True 19. C 20. False 21. A 22. True 23. B 24. True 25. True SECTION SEVEN 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. D 13. C 14. B15. A 16. D 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. C 21. B 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. D SECTION EIGHT 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. Buddhism 10. Christianity 11. Hinduism 12. Islam 13. Atheists 14. Judaism 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. C 21. B 22. D 23. A24. A 25. C SECTION NINE 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. D 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. D 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. B SECTION TEN 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. True7. A 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. C SECTION ELEVEN 1. Arrives 2. Bed, tidy 3. Admission kit 4. Time, condition 5. Consciousness, confused 6. Introduce, position 7. Friendly 8. Formal 9. Resident 10. Welcome, wanted 11. Tour 12. Valuables 13. Wants, them 14. True 15. True16. False 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. False SECTION TWELVE 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. False 16. False 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. False 24. False25. True SECTION THIRTEEN 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. B 21. C 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. A SECTION FOURTEEN 1. C 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. A8. C 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. True 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. False 24. True 25. False SECTION FIFTEEN 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. True17. True 18. F 19. H 20. B 21. G 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. D SECTION SIXTEEN 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. FalseSECTION SEVENTEEN 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. Enema 10. Fecal impaction 11. Hemorrhoids 12. Diarrhea 13. Flatus or gas 14. Lactose intolerance 15. BRAT 16. Colitis 17. Malabsorption 18. Harris flush 19. Weakening 20. Peptic ulcers 21. Colon cancer 22.120 ML 23. Blood 24. Worms and amoebas 25. Occult SECTION EIGHTEEN 1. Sarcoptes scabiei 2. Shingles 3. Wound 4. Inflammation 5. Itching 6. Ringworm 7. Autoimmune illness 8. Women9. Closed 10. Muscular dystrophy (MD) 11. Amputation 12. Complimentary medicine 13. CVA 14. Right 15. Parkinson 16. Circulation 17. Impairments 18. Spinalcord 19. Safe 20. Glaucoma 21. Atherosclerosis 22. Angina pectoris 23. Myocardial infarction 24. Hyperthyroidism 25. Vaginitis SECTION NINETEEN 1. F 2. I 3. C 4. H 5. E 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. C 17. B18. D 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. C 23. D 24. C 25. D SECTION TWENTY 1. V 2. U 3. T 4. S 5. R 6. Q 7. P 8. O 9. N 10. M 11. K 12. L 13. H 14. F 15. E 16. D 17. J 18. I 19. G 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. B SECTION TWENTY ONE1. L 2. H 3. F 4. O 5. A 6. B 7. N 8. C 9. D 10. E 11. G 12. I 13. J 14. M 15. K 16. Rehabilitation 17. Physical and mental health 18. High blood pressure 19. Lower 20. Plate guard 21. Trapeze 22. Belts, cuffs or suction 23. Increase circulation 24. Lungs 25. Incentive spirometers SECTION TWENTY TWO 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. True10. True 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. Tracheostomy 15. Mechanical ventilation 16. Larynx 17. Sedative 18. Mucus, secretions 19. Chest tubes 20. Pleural cavity 21. Compassionate 22. Constipation 23. Membrane, covers, protects 24. Nostrils flaring 25. Doctor SECTION TWENTY THREE 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. H 11. K 12. J 13. I 14. G 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. D19. E 20. F 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. True SECTION TWENTY FOUR 1. Direct service 2. Lab technicians 3. Hands-on 4. Potential 5. Called 6. Resume 7. Lie 8. Criminal 9. Job description 10. B and C 11. Criticism 12. Suggestions 13. OBRA 14.12 hours 15. Stress 16. Stressor 17. Tolerance 18. Support 19. Proud 20. Regularly 21. Health 22. Internet 23. Polite 24. Constructive 25. ImproveSECTION TWENTY FIVE 1. Mucus from the respiratory system that is expectorated from the mouth is called: a. Hemoptysis b. Acetone c. Melena d. Sputum 2. Specimens are collected and tested for the following reasons except: a. To prevent disease b. To detect disease c. For urine control d. To treat disease 3. Who orders what specimen to collect and the test needed? a. Nurse Aide b. Doctor c. Receptionist d. Resident's family 4. Which one is a not rule for collecting specimens? a. Use only one container for different specimen b. Follow the rules of medical asepsis c. Label the container d. Do not touch the inside of the container or lid. 5. Urine specimens are collected for: a. Tarry stool test b. Sputum c. Blood test d. Urine tests 6. Before collecting a urine specimen you need the following information from the nurse except: a. The type of specimen needed b. What time to collect the specimen? c. How the lab will test the specimen d. What special measures are needed? 7. The midstream specimen is called a. A sterile voided specimen b. A clean-voided specimen c. Acetone specimen d. Ketone specimen 8. All urine voided during a 24 hour period is collected for a. 24 hour urine specimen b. 12 hour urine specimen c. Double voided specimen d. Random specimen 9. Urine tested for ketones are usually collected: a. Before breakfastb. Thirty minutes after meals and at bed time c. Thirty minutes before meals and at bed time d. At midnight 10. Stools are black and tarry if there is bleeding in the: a. lntestine b. Vagina c. Heart d. Stomach or upper GI tract. 11. Surgery done by choice to improve the person's life or well-being is called: a. Urgent surgery b. Emergency surgery c. Elective surgery d. General surgery 12. Joint replacement surgery and cosmetic surgery are what type of surgery? a. General surgery b. Elective surgery c. Emergency surgery d. Urgent surgery 13. The type of surgery that is sudden and unexpected is a. Emergency surgery b. By-pass surgery c. General surgery d. Urgent surgery 14. The introduction of fluid into vagina and the immediate return of the fluid is called: a. Anesthesia b. Thrombus c. Embolus d. Douche 15. Which is not common fear and concerns of surgical patients? a. Pain during surgery b. Dying during surgery c. Comfort after surgery d. Waking up during surgery 16. Regional anesthesia mean: a. Loss of consciousness and all feeling b. Loss of feeling or sensation in a large area of the body c. Loss of feeling or sensation produced by a drug d. Loss of feeling or sensation produced by a drug 17. Preoperative drugs are given to patients about minutes to I hour before surgery. a. 45 b. 30 c. 48 d. 20 18. Preoperative drugs are given to the patient for the following reasons except: a. To help the person relax an feel drowsy b. To stop the person from dying c. Reduce respirations, secretions and to prevent aspirations. d. To prevent nausea and vomiting19. A doctor who specializes in giving anesthetics is called: Podiatrist Social Worker Physical therapist An anesthesiologist 20. As CNA to help prevent respiratory and circulatory complications after surgery, you should reposition the patient at least: a. 96h b. q4h c. q2h d. q3h 21. When preparing surgical patient bed, you should do the following except: a. Make a surgical bed b. Keep the bed to its lowest position c. Lower bed rails d. Move furniture out of the way for stretcher 22. Elastic stockings are ordered for the people at risk of thrombi. Which patient is not at risk of thrombi? a. Pregnant women b. Obese patients c. Surgical Patients d. None of the above 23. Elastic stocking are also called: a. Leg wear b. Elastic bandages c. Anti-embolism stockings d. Pressure stockings 24. Preoperatively Mr. Leon is a. Given a tube feeding b. NPO c. Allowed only milk d. Allowed only water CIRCLE T IF THE STATEMENT IS TRUE AND F IF IT IS FALSE: 25. The goal of preoperative cane is to prevent complications before, during and after surgery. T F 26. Surgery is done to remove a diseased body part or repair injured tissue. T F 27. Surgery often requires a hospital stay. T F 28. Women can wear artificial nails to surgery. T F 29. Turning and repositioning re done every 3 to 4 hours after surgery. T F 30. An anesthetist is an RN with advanced study giving anesthetics. T F 31. Artificial eyes and artificial limbs are removed before surgery. T F 32. Some surgeries require certain positions. T F 33. A surgical cap keeps hair out of the face and operative site. T F 34. Jewelries are worn to the operating room. T F 35. A full bladder can cause discomfort during a douche. T F36. An open wound on the lower leg and feet caused by decreased blood flow through the arteries or veins is: a. Arterial Ulcer b. Decubitus ulcer c. Circulatory ulcer d. Pressure ulcer 37. Thin watery drainage that is blood-tinged is called: a. Sanguineous drainage b. Purulent drainage c. Serious drainage d. Serosanguineos drainage 38. Which is not a type of wound? a. Abrasion b. Gangrene c. Laceration d. Contusion 39. partial-thickness wound caused by the scraping away or rubbing of skin is called: a. Incision b. Puncture wound c. Abrasion d. Penetrating wound 40. Violent act that injures the skin, mucous membranes, bones and internal organs is : a. Trauma b. Wound c. Shock d. Skin tear 41. Tissues are injured but she skin is not broken. This is called what? a. Clean wound b. Closed wound c. Contaminated wound d. Puncture wound 42. Dehiscence means: a. Infected wound b. Wounds with large amount of microbes c. Wounds that does not heal easily d. Separation of wound layers 43. A pressure ulcer can also be called: a. Decubitus ulcer b. Vascular ulcer c. Venous ulcer d. Chronic ulcer 44. Anareawherethebonesticksoutorprojectsoutfromtheflatsurfaceofthebodyiscalled? a. Bedsore b. Pressure sore c. A bony prominence d. Contusion 45. Which one is not a bony prominence? a. Shoulder bladesb. Sacrum c. Ankles d. Ear 46. Common causes of skin breakdown and pressure ulcers include the following except: a. Friction b. Shock c. Shearing d. Pressure 47. The bony areas are called: a. Bed sore b. Pressure sore c. Pressure points d. Pressure stage 48. At the first stage of the pressure ulcers the skin is a. Cyanosis b. Red c. Peels d. Cracks 49. Which is not measures in preventing pressure ulcers? a. Positioning the person according to the care plan b. Raising the head of the bed to highest position c. Providing good skin care d. Minimizing skin exposure to moisture 50. Measures to prevent circulatory ulcers includes the following except: a. Keeping pressure of the heels and other bony areas b. Do not massage over pressure points c. Keeping linens clean, dry and wrinkle free d. Dressing the person in tight clothes 5l. Heat and cold application for promoting healing and comfort is ordered by: a. Doctor b. Nurse c. CNA d. Receptionist 52. Bluish skin color is a. Syncope b. Erythema c. Jaundice d. Cyanosis 53. A body temperature is much larger than the person's normal. This is called: a. Hypothermia b. Hyperthermia c. Low blood pressure d. Blood pressure rate 54. Heat applications are often used for: a. Circulatory problems b. Musculoskeletal injuries c. Nervous Injuries d. Heart Injuries55. Which is not a reason for heat application? a. To relieve Pain b. To increase joint stiffness c. To reduce tissue swelling d. To relaxes muscles 56. What type of application has greater and fasten effects: a. Dry heat application b. Non-dry application c. Heat application d. Moist heat application 57. A cold application is usually between: a. 50o to 65o F b. 98o to 106o F c. 100o to 106o F d. 40o to 50o F 58. Heat and cold are applied for not longer than: a. 2 to 5minutes b. 5 to 10 minutes c. 15 to 20 minutes d. 10 to 15 minutes 59. A very hot application is apply only by: a. Charge Nurse b. Nursing assistant c. Physical therapist d. Occupational therapist 60. Very hot application is usually between: a. 95o to l08o F b. 106o to 120o F c. 105o to l06o F d. 106o to 115o F 61. The Sitz bath usually last for: a. 5 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 45 minutes d. 50 minutes 62. An electric device used for dry heat is: a. ComPress b. ComPass c. The aquachermia Pad d. Hypothermia Pad 63. Which one is not a sign and symptom of hypoxia? a. Dizziness b. Confusion c. Rash d. Fatigue 64. Hypoxia means a. Rapid breathingb. Insufficient oxygen to the cells c. Slow breathing d. Abnormal breathing 65. Smoking causes: a. Lung cancer b. Breath cancer c. Kidney failure d. Heart Cancer 56. An early sign of hypoxia is: a. Apprehension b. Agitation c. Cyanosis d. Restlessness 67. Breathing deeply and comfortably only when sitting is called: a. Dyspnea b. Orthopnea c. Apnea d. Bradypnea 68. Slow, weak respirations at not fewer than 12 per minute is: a. Cheyenne-strokes respirations b. Biot's respiration c. Respiratory depression d. Respiratory arrest 69. Pulmonary function test measures: a. The amount of oxygen in the blood b. The amount of hemoglobin containing oxygen c. The amount of air moving in and out of the lungs d. How much air the heart can hold 70. A chest X-ray is taken to detect: a. Blood damage b. Lung damage c. Kidney damage d. Liver damage 71. A substance that gives off radiation is called: a. Bronchoscopy b. Thoracentesis c. Radiation d. Radioisotope 72. Pulse oximetry measures: a. Oxygen concentration in arterial blood b. The amount of brain damage c. The capacity of air the lungs can hold d. Measures progress of lungs disease. 73. Breathing is usually easier in what type of position? a. Sims's position b. Prone position c. Fowler's Position d. Supine position74. Factors affecting oxygen needs include: a. Respiratory system status b. Aging c. Pain d. All of the above 75. People with difficulty breathing often prefer sitting-up and leaning over a table to breathe. This is called: a. Dorsal Recumbent Position b. Knee-chest position c. Orthopneic Position d. Lithotomy position 76. Position changes are needed at least for: a. q6h b. q2h c. q3h d. q8h 77. You are assisting a patient with coughing and deep breathing. Which is incorrect? a. The person inhales through pursed lips b. The person sits on comfortable position c. The person holds a follow over air incision d. The person inhales deeply through the nose 78. The collapse of a portion of the lungs is called: a. Pneumonia b. Dizziness c. Atelectasis d. Disorientation 79. A spirometer is a machine that measures: a. The movement of air b. The amount of air moving out of the lungs c. The volume of air exhaled d. The amount of air inhaled 80. The amount of oxygen to give and the device to use can only be ordered by a. CNA b. Doctor c. RN d. LVN 81. Oropharyngeal airway is inserted through: a. Nostril and into the pharynx b. Nose and into the trachea c. The mouth and into the pharynx d. The surgically created opening into the trachea 82. Which one is not the upper part of the airway (Upper respiratory tract)? a. Mouth b. Pharynx c. Mouth d. The trachea 83. Infection of the middle ear is called: a. Otitis mediab. Deaf c. Cerumen d. Braille 84. Otitis media is common in a. Young people b. Old people c. Infants d. Adults 85. A chronic disease of the inner ear is a. Tinnitus b. Otitis media c. Acute Ear Disease d. Meniere's Disease 86. The middle ear contains Eustachian tube and three small bones called: a. Eardrum b. Tympanic membrane c. Ossicles d. Auditory canal 87. Difficulty in hearing normal conversation is a. Deafness b. Hearing loss c. Vertigo d. Cerumen 88. Hearing loss in which is impossible for the person to understand speech through hearing alone is a. Hearing loss b. Deafness c. Tinnitus d. Otitis media 89. The most common cause of hearing loss in children is a. Illness b. Birth defects c. Ear infection d. Injury 90. Symptoms of hearing loss in children and adult include: a. Speaking too loudly b. Leaning forward to hear c. Asking for words to be repeated d. All of the above 91. Communicating with hearing impaired person includes the following except: a. Position yourself at the person's level b. Turn your back when speaking with the person c. Stand or sit in good right. d. Speak clearly, distinctly and slowly 92. The second layer of the eyes is called: a. The sclera b. The retina c. The Choroid layer d. Optic nerve93. The major cause of vision loss is a. Cataract b. lnfections c. Glaucoma d. Hereditary 94. Hearing aids make: a. Sounds louder b. Speech clearer c. Correct hearing disorder d. Increase background noise 95. Braille involves: a. Ringing in the ears b. Raise dots arrange for letters of the alphabet c. Dizziness d. Audio Books 96. CNA can provide safety for blind clients by doing the following except: a. Turning on lights b. Keeping doors open or closed c. Having client stand in the middle of room d. Informing the client of steps and curbs 97. When communicating with the speech impaired, you should do the following a. Listen, and give the person full attention b. Determine the subject been discussed c. Repeat what the person has said d. All of the above 98. ________ is a disease affecting the blood vessels that supply blood to the brain. a. Angina pectoris b. Myocardial infarction c. Stroke d. Heart attack 99. The third leading cause of death in the United States is a. Heart attack b. Cerebrovascular accident c. Diabetes d. Obesity 100. The surgical creation of an artificial opening between the ureter and the abdomen is called: a. Ureterostomy b. lleostomy c. Bosomy d. Colostomy 101. High sugar in the blood is called: a. Hypoglycemia b. Diabetes mellitus c. Sugar Surge d. Hyperglycemia 102. _________ is a tumor that grows fast and invades other tissues. a. Fast tumorb. Malign tumor c. Benign tumor d. Metastasis 103. The removal of all or part of an extremity is a. Amputation b. Decapitation c. Evisceration d. Cutting 104. Which therapy helps the immune system? a. Hormone therapy b. Chemotherapy c. Biological therapy d. Radiation therapy 105. The followings are the side effect of hormone therapy except: a. Weight gain b. Fatigue c. Hot flashes d. Muscle aches 105. Leukemia is the most common type of in children. a. Myocardial infarction b. Cancer c. Pneumonia d. Stroke 107. Which of the followings can be a care for people with paralysis? a. Keep the bed in low position b. Follow bowel and bladder training programs c. Maintain good alignment at all times. d. All of the above. 108. ____________ is spread by airborne droplets with coughing, sneezing, speaking, and singing. a. Pneumonia b. Leprosy c. Asthma d. Tuberculosis 109. The leading cause of death in United States is a. Coronary Artery Disease b. Pneumonia c. HIV d. Angina 110. Which of the followings is the major complication of CAD? a. Emphysema b. Dyspnea c. Tuberculosis d. Myocardial infarction 111. _________ occurs when the heart cannot pump blood normally. a. Hypertension b. Congestive heart failure c. Hypotension d. None of the above112. Blood clot is also known as a. Bronchus b. Thrombus c. Blood stop d. Platelets 113. The therapy that involves drugs that kill cells is called: a. Hormone therapy b. Biological therapy c. Chemotherapy d. Physiotherapy 114. Using X-ray beams to destroy cancerous cells is ________ therapy. a. Radiotherapy b. Physiotherapy c. Chemotherapy d. Biological therapy 115. _________ is the spread of cancer to other parts of the body. a. Stomatitis b. Cancer transfer c. Benign tumor d. Metastasis 116. A condition in which there is death of tissue is called: a. Aphasia b. Gangrene c. Angina d. Pectoris 117. __________ is when the bone becomes porous and brittle or is fragile and breaks easily. a. Osteoporosis b. Arthritis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Bone low density 118. Which of the followings is not a rule for cast care? a. Turn the person every two hours b. Wash the cast every 4hours c. Elevate a casted arm or leg on pillows d. Protect the person from rough cast edges. 119. Which of the followings is not a risk factor of stroke? a. Smoking b. Obesity c. Exercise d. Drug abuse 120. There ____ major types of hepatitis. a. 5 b. 3 c. 6 d. 4 121. Diseases that are contagious and infectious are called ________ diseases. a. Non-communicableb. Spreading c. Communicable d. Rapid 122. Which one is a sign and symptom of hepatitis? a. Loss of appetite b. Fever c. Nausea and vomiting d. All of the above 123. What type of diabetes occurs mostly in children? a. Type 2 b. Type 3 c. Type 1 d. Type 4 124. Which of these is a sign of chronic renal failure? a. Sudden severe headaches with no known cause b. Halitosis c. Rashes d. Rigidity and trembling of extremities 125. The pathway created for urine to exit the body by removing the bladder is called a. Urinary Diversion b. Urinary conversion c. Urinary obstruction d. Urinary bisection 126. Cystitis which is a bladder infection is caused by a. Virus b. Fungus c. Bacteria d. Nematode 127. Care of a person with stroke involves the following except: a. The bed is kept in semi-Fowler's position b. Avoid coughing and deep breathing. c. Food and fluids needs are met d. Good skin care prevents pressure ulcers 128. Psychosis means: a. A state of severe mental impairment b. A disorder of the mind c. Mental disorder d. Emotional illness 129. Superego is concerned with a. Ability and disability b. Mind and stress c. Right and wrong d. Health and illness 130. A vague uneasy feeling in response to stress is called: a. Personality b. Anxiety c. Stress d. Panic131. Which one is not a sign and symptom of anxiety? a. Rapid pulse b. Rapid respiration c. Increased blood pressure d. Redness 132. Any factor that causes stress is called: a. Obsession b. Stress c. A stressor d. Phobia 133. The highest level of anxiety is a. Syncope b. Panic c. Dread d. Terror 134. Which is not a sign and symptom of depression in older people? a. Diarrhea b. Paranoia c. Dry mouth d. Anxiety 135. Depression involves the following except: a. Body b. Mood c. Ability d. Thoughts 136. ___________ when a person is seeing, hearing or feeling something that is not real. a. Delusion b. Hallucination c. Paranoia d. Bipolar disorder 137. Mrs. White believes that she is the Queen of England. This is called a _____________. a. Hallucination b. Paranoia c. Delusion of persecution d. Delusion of grandeur 138. Mr. Smith believes that his food is poisoned. This is called a ____________. a. Superego b. Paranoia c. Psychosis d. Delusion 139. Anorexia nervosa occurs when? a. A person has an intense fear of weight gain and obesity b. Binge eating occurs c. A person explore his or her thoughts and feelings d. A person has severe extremes in mood 140. Repeating an act over and again without the ability to control the repetition is called: a. Egob. Paraphrasing c. Compulsion d. Conscious 141. Delirium means: a. A false belief b. Loss of conjecture and social function c. Feeling something that is not real d. A state of temporary but acute mental confusion 142. Cognitive functioning includes all except: a. Memory b. Attitude c. Thinking d. Reasoning 143. When caring for a confused person the CNA should do the following except: a. Provide safety b. Give date and time each morning c. Rearrange Furniture and the person's view d. Place familiar objects and pictures within the person's view 144. Loss of cognitive and social function caused by changes in the brain is called a. Dementia b. Paranoia c. Obsession d. Schizophrenia 145. Alzheimer's disease is: a. Heart disease b. Brain disease c. Blood disease d. Liver disease 146. The most common type of permanent dementia is ___________. a. Huntington's disease b. Parkinson's disease c. Alzheimer's disease d. Korsakoff disease 147. The most common mental health problem in old people is a. Depression b. lnfection c. Drugs d. Head injuries 148. Signs and symptoms of delirium include: a. Tremors b. Delusions c. Hallucinations d. All of the above 149. Mr. Fresh has delusion. Delusion means: a. False dementia b. False belief c. A state of Temporary but acute mental confusion d. Something that is not real150. Signs, symptoms and behavior of Alzheimer's disease increase during: a. Daylight b. Morning time c. Early afternoon d. Hours of dark 151. The classic sign of Alzheimer's disease is a. Not recognizing objects b. Gradual loss of short term memory c. Agitation d. Mood and personality 152. The followings are common in people with Alzheimer's disease except a. Pain, rash and shock b. Communication problem, moodiness and restlessness c. Memory loss, poor judgment and poor reasoning d. Delusion, hallucination and screaming 153. When caring for Mr. Stone who is wandering you should do the following except: a. Follow agency policy for locking doors and windows b. B, Keep door alarms and electronic doors turned on c. Involve the person with activities d. Restraint Mr. Stone firmly 154. Mr. Jones becomes confused and begins to wander. The CNA should: a. Restrain him to prevent injuries b. Tell the doctor c. Report his behavior to the charge nurse d. Tell his family about the behavior 155. A common sign of depression is: a. Laughing and smiling b. Changes in appetite c. Socializing with friends d. Attending activities 156. a disability occurring before Z2years of age is called a ___________. a. Developmental disability b. Mental retardation c. Spastic d. Spinal bifida 157. Mental retardation involves: a. Violent sudden contractions of muscle groups b. Muscle weakness c. Low intellectual function d. Uncontrolled contraction of skeletal muscles 158. These statements are about cerebral palsy. Which one is false? a. It is a disorder involving muscle weakness or poor muscle b. It is violent contractions of muscle group c. Lack of oxygen to the brain is the usual cause d. The defect is in the motor region of the brain 159. Autism begins in early childhood between: a. 12 months and six yearsb. 9 months and 7 years c. 10 months and 5 years d. 18 months and 3 years 160. Paralysis of all four extremities is: a. Paraplegia b. Hemiplegia c. Quadriplegia d. Diplegia 161. Paralysis of one side of the body is a. Quadriplegia b. Hemiplegia c. Paraplegia d. Diplegia 162. Diplegia means: a. That similar body part are affected on both side of the body b. The arm and leg on one side are affected c. Both arms and both legs are paralyzed so are the trunks and neck muscles. d. Paralysis of the leg or lower body 163. People with cerebral palsy have much impairment. They include the following except: a. Mental retardation b. Learning disabilities c. Speech impairments d. Wide flat nose 164. A chronic conditions produced by temporary changes in the brains electrical function is: a. Autism b. Epilepsy c. Spina bifida d. Hydrocephalus 165. Seizures that occur in one part of the brain is called: a. Whole seizures b. Single seizures c. Partial seizures d. Generalized seizures 166. Spina bifida defects occur during the: a. 3 months of pregnancy b. First month of pregnancy c. 6 months of pregnancy d. 5 months of pregnancy 167. Down syndrome occurs: a. First month of pregnancy b. At fertilization c. During birth d. From trauma 168. Children with Down syndrome has certain features caused by extra chromosomes. They include the following Except: a. Drooling b. Over shaped eyes that slant upwards c. Flat face d. Short, wide hands with stubby fingers169. A seizure can also be called: a. Autism b. Down syndrome c. Convulsion d. Spina bifida 170. Spina bifida involves a. Loss of consciousness b. A defect of spinal column c. Hearing impairments d. Mental retardation 171. The inability of the male to have an erection is called: a. Menopause b. Impotence c. Transvestite d. Transsexual 172. Erectile dysfunction is same thing as: a. Impotence b. Menopause c. Bisexual d. Transsexual 173. Menopause is a. When the body responds to stimulation b. When menstruation stops c. Reproduce organ d. Uniting of the sperm and ovum 174. Menstruation occurs about every: a. 20 days b. 18 days c. 10 days d. 28 days 175. Menopause occurs between _______ and _______ years of age. a. 30 and 40 b. 30 and 35 c. 45 and 55 d. 50 and 60 CIRCLE T IF THE STATEMENT IS TRUE AND F IF IT IS FALSE. 176. Reproductive organs change with aging. T F 177. Diabetes and spinal cord injuries can cause impotence. T F 178. Heterosexual is a person who is attracted to both sexes. T F 179. Sexuality is important to small children. T F 180. Injury, Illness and surgery can affect sexual function. T F 181. Lochia means: a. Person feelings and attitudes about his or her sex b. Surgical removal of foreskin from the penis c. Vaginal discharge that occurs after child birth. d. Incision into perineum182. Signs and symptoms of illness in babies include the followings except: a. The body is limp and slow to respond b. The body has a low temperature c. The bay is flashed, pale or perspiring d. The body has reddened or irritated eyes 183. As a CNA you can help with breast feeding in the following ways: a. Helping the mother to a comfortable position b. Making sure the mother holds the baby close to her breast c. Having the mother use her nipple to stroke the baby's cheek or lower lip. d. All of the above 184. Breast-fed babies usually nurse every: a. 8 or l2 hours b. 4 or 8 hours c. 2 or 3 hours d. 3 or 6 hours 185. Babies are fed on: a. Schedule b. Demand c. All time d. On their mother's free time 186. Safety measures for infant includes the following except: a. Laying an infant on soft bedding products. b. Support the baby's head and neck when lifting or holding the baby c. Handle the baby with gentle smooth movements d. Use both hands to lift a newborn baby 187. Nursing mother needs: a. Spicy and gas forming foods b. Caffeine c. Cola beverages d. Good nutrition 188. Infant birth weight is the baseline for measuring: a. Weight b. Growth c. Height d. Amount of milk taken 189. When bathing a new born baby the water temperature should be ______ to ______ degrees F: a. 80 to 90 b. 90 to 95 c. 100 to 105 d. 100 to 150 190. Which of the following is used to wash a new born baby's nose? a. A mitted wash cloths b. Cotton balls c. Alcohol swipes d. A cotton swab 191. CNA should report the followings to the charge nurse when caring for new born babies except: a. The baby has reddened or irritated eyesb. The baby spit a small amount when burped c. Stools are light-colored d. The baby looks flushed, pale and perspiring 192. A baby's head and neck is supported for the first_ months. a. 9 b. 6 c. 8 d. 3 193. When bottle-feeding babies. You should: a. Prop the bottle and lay the baby down for the feeding b. Force the baby to finish the bottle c. Hold the baby close to you d. Leave the baby at one inch with the bottle 194. Burping a baby is also called a. Breast-feeding b. Bubbling c. Diapering d. Circumcision 195. Newborns usually have a bowel movement with every feeding. T F 196. Watery stools means constipation. T F 197. Baby stops sucking and turns away from the bottle when satisfied T F 198. You can lift a newborn by the arm. T F 199. Moisture, feces, and urine irritate baby's skin. T F 200. Umbilical cord carries blood, oxygen and nutrients from the mother to fetus. T F 201. A written plan listing the services needed by the person and who provides them is a. Meal plan b. ADL plan c. A service plan d. Nursing Services 202. Assisted living provides the following except: a. Healthcare b. Nursing care c. Housing d. Support services 203. CNA should report any drug error to: a. RN b. Co-worker c. Receptionist d. Doctor 204. Medication records should include the following except: a. The person's name b. Date of birth of the person c. Drug name, dose directions, and route of administration d. Date and time to take the drug 205. Which of the following is not drug error?a. Taking the wrong dose b. Taking another person's drug c. Taking a drug when ordered d. Taking a drug at the wrong time 206. Drugs are kept in: a. Closet b. On top of table c. Under the bed d. IN a locked container, cabinet or area 207. Certain measures are needed when handling, preparing and storing food includes the following except: a. Empty garbage at least once in two weeks b. Protect left over foods c. Wash cooking and eating items d. Place washed eating and cooking items in a drainer to dry 208. CNA can assist with drugs in the following ways except: a. Reminding the person it is time to take the drug b. Giving drugs c. Reading the drug label to the person d. Opening containers for people who cannot do so 209. Transfer, discharge and eviction of person can happen for the following reasons: a. The person fails to pay for services b. The person wants to transfer c. The facility closes d. All of the above 210. Housekeeping measures help prevent infection in the following ways except: a. Cleaning tub or shower after each use b. Cleaning bathroom surfaces once in three weeks c. Dusting furniture at least weekly d. Vacuum floors at least weekly and as needed 211. When assisting with laundry services you should: a. Follow your own preferences b. Wash with hot water c. Follow care label directions d. Wash sturdy and delicate fabrics together 212. An assisted living resident is encouraged to eat in: a. Dining room b. Inner room c. Bathroom d. Kitchen 213. Which statement about assisted living is incorrect? a. Assisted living provide secured and 24 hour supervision for residents b. They provide each person with private apartment c. Three meals a day and snacks are provided d. They offer social and recreational service 214. Assisted facility residents have the right to: a. Be treated with dignity respect, consideration and fairness b. Help develop a plan c. Receive the services stated in the service pland. All of the above 215. Which is not a requirement and features of assisted living facility units? a. A mailbox for each person b. A window that allow safe exit in an emergency c. A closet with insects and rodents d. Smoke detectors 216. The excessive loss of blood in a short time is called: a. Blood flow b. Blood loss c. Hemorrhage d. Blood clot 217. _________ occurs when the heart and breathing stop suddenly without warning. a. System arrest b. Heart malfunction c. Cardiac Arrest d. Heart stoppage 218. The emergency care given to an ill or injured person before medical help arrives is called: a. Initial aid b. First aid c. Last Aid d. Emergency aid 219. When breathing stops but heart action continues for several minutes. This is called: a. Respiratory arrest b. Heart arrest c. Heart seizure d. Heart failure 220. To activate EMS system, dial a. 921 b. 112 c. 114 d. 911 221. Which is one of the goals of First Aid? a. To cure the person permanently b. To prevent injuries from becoming worse c. To operate on the patient if the need arises there. d. To make sure the person live at all cost 222. Causes of respiratory arrest include the followings except: a. Vomiting b. Drowning c. Smoke inhalation d. Suffocation 223. Which of these is not a general rule of emergency care? a. Check for life threatening problems b. Stay calm c. Do not hang up until the operator has hung up d. Act with alacrity and temerity 224. The CPR has ______ basic parts.a. 2 b. 4 c. 3 d. 5 225. Which of these is not a basic part of CPR? a. Smelling b. Airway c. Breathing d. Circulation 226. _______ maneuver opens the airway a. Nose tilt b. Stomach tilt c. Head-tilt/chin d. Nose-tilt/chin 227. The AHA's pediatric chain of survival involves these except: a. Preventing cardiac arrest and injuries b. Later advance care c. Early CPR d. Early access to emergency response system 228. When practicing CPR, we should use a. Babies b. Adults c. Young people d. Mannequins 229. Cardiac arrest caused by heart disease is rare in a. Adults b. Children c. Young people d. A and C 230. Which of these can lead to cardiac arrest? a. Voiding b. FBAO c. Vomiting d. None of the above 231. A large, poorly chewed piece of meat is a common cause of a. Syncope b. Dying c. Vomiting d. FBAO 232. Older people are at risk for choking. Which of these is not a risk? a. Strong fitted dentures b. Poorly fitted dentures c. Dysphagia d. Hard candy 233. ______ maneuver is used to relieve FBAO. a. Parkinson b. Einthoven c. Heimlichd. Chest 234. _______ results when organs and tissues do not get enough blood. a. Syncope b. Shock c. Convulsion d. Cardiac Arrest 235. _______ is violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscle group. a. Shock b. Syncope c. Heart attack d. Convulsion 236. Signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis are the followings except: a. Sweating b. Shortness of breath c. Voiding d. Dyspnea 237. Common causes of fires and burns include the following except: a. Cautions with matches and lighters b. Falling asleep while smoking c. Fireplaces d. Space heaters 238. __________ is the sudden loss of consciousness from an inadequate blood supply to the brain. a. Stroke b. Fainting c. Cardiac failure d. Angina pectoris 239. _____________ accident occurs when the brain is suddenly deprived of its blood supply. a. Cardio b. Reproductive c. System d. Cerebrovascular 240. The Heimlich maneuver is performed with people in the following position except: a. Standing b. Sitting c. Walking d. Lying 241. A document stating a person's wish about healthcare when the person cannot make his or her own decisions is ___________. a. Emergency directives b. Later directives c. Advance directives d. Healthcare directives 242. Post mortem means: a. During death b. After Death c. Before death d. Death 243. The belief that the spirit or soul is reborn in another body or in another form of life isa. Resurrection b. Ascension c. Awakening d. Reincarnation 244. There _________ stages of dying. a. 5 b. 3 c. 4 d. 7 245. During dying a Mr. John responds and says "NO NOT ME", what dying stage is he in? a. Anger b. Depression c. Denial d. Bargaining 246. ________care focuses on the physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs of dying people and their families. a. Hospital b. Hospice c. Covalent d. Clinic 247. __________ wills is a document about measures that support or maintain life when death is likely. a. Person b. Living c. Dying d. Facility 248. The dying person's room should have the following conditions except: a. The CNA arrange the room as they wish b. The room should be comforting and pleasant c. The room should be well lit and well ventilated d. The room should reflect the person's choice 249. MRS. Smith is a dying patient and suddenly says "This is not true, I know that I am dreaming.....". Which dying stage is this? a. Acceptance b. Depression c. Denial d. Bargaining 250. The dying person bill of right includes the following except: a. I have the right to be treated as a living human being till I die b. I have the right not to be deceived c. I have the right to die with somebody d. I have the right to die in peace and dignity 251. Restraints are used only if ordered by _________. a. Charge nurse b. Doctor c. Therapist d. CNA 252. When the dying person engages you in conversation. As the CNA you should do the following except: a. Let the person express feelings and emotions. b. Do not worry about saying the wrong thing or finding comforting words. c. Ignore the clientd. Listen carefully and don't interrupt 253. Dying People often need the following except: a. Hospital care b. Nursing center c. Hospice d. Sports center 254. The Stiffness or rigidity of skeletal muscles that occurs after death is called: a. Post mortem stiffness b. Rigor Mortis c. Mortem d. Mortis 255. _________ illness or injury for which there is no reasonable expectation of recovery. a. Sudden b. Emergency c. Terminal d. MortemSECTION TWENTY FIVE ANSWERS 1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. B25. T 26. T 27. T 28. F 29. F 30. T 31. T 32. T 33. T 34. F 35. T 36. C 37. D 38. B 39. C 40. A 41. B 42. D 43. A 44. C 45. D 46. B 47. C 48. B 49. B 50. D 51. A 52. D 53. B 54. B 55. B 56. D 57. A 58. C 59. A60. D 61. B 62. C 63. C 64. B 65. A 66. D 67. B 68. C 69. C 70. B 71. D 72. A 73. C 74. D 75. C 76. B 77. A 78. C 79. D 80. B 81. C 82. D 83. A 84. C 85. D 86. C 87. D 88. A 89. C 90. D 91. B 92. C 93. C 94. A95. B 96. C 97. D 98. C 99. B 100. A 101. D 102. B 103. A 104. C 105. D 106. B 107. D 108. D 109. A 110. D 111. B 112. B 113. C 114. A 115. D 116. B 117. A 118. B 119. C 120. A 121. C 122. D 123. C 124. B 125. A 126. C 127. B 128. A 129. C130. B 131. D 132. C 133. B 134. A 135. C 136. B 137. D 138. B 139. A 140. C 141. D 142. B 143. C 144. A 145. B 146. C 147. A 148. D 149. B 150. D 151. B 152. A 153. D 154. C 155. B 156. A 157. C 158. B 159. D 160. C 161. B 162. A 163. D 164. B165. C 166. B 167. B 168. A 169. C 170. B 171. B 172. A 173. B 174. D 175. C 176. T 177. T 178. F 179. F 180. T 181. C 182. B 183. D 184. C 185. B 186. A 187. D 188. B 189. C 190. A 191. B 192. D 193. C 194. B 195. T 196. F 197. T 198. F 199. T200. T 201. C 202. B 203. A 204. B 205. C 206. D 207. A 208. B 209. D 210. B 211. C 212. A 213. B 214. D 215. C 216. C 217. C 218. B 219. A 220. D 221. B 222. A 223. D 224. C 225. A 226. C 227. B 228. D 229. B 230. B