HESI Module 2 Exam:
7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Question 1 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with d
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HESI Module 2 Exam:
7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
https://concorde.instructure.com/courses/18612/quizzes/83895?module_item_id=1519718 1/106
Question 1 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection of a client gathers both
subjective and objective data. Which finding would the nurse
document as subjective data?
The client appears anxious.
Blood pressure is 170/80 mm Hg.
Correct! Correct! The client states that he has a rash.
The client has diminished reflexes in the legs.
Rationale: The purpose of a physical assessment is to
collect both subjective and objective data. Subjective data,
collected during the health history, consist of information
that the client gives about himself or herself. Objective
data are obtained through physical examination and vital
signs measurements, what the nurse observes, and
laboratory study and diagnostic test results.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options that include data
that the nurse would obtain during the physical
examination. Review the difference between subjective
and objective data if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 2 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination that
have been documented in a client’s record. Which piece of7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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information does the nurse recognize as objective data?
The client is allergic to strawberries.
The last menstrual period was 30 days ago.
The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches.
A 1 × 2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the
abdomen.
Correct! Correct!
Rationale: Subjective data, collected during the health
history, consist of information that the client gives about
himself or herself. Objective data are obtained through
physical examination and vital signs measurements, what
the nurse observes, and laboratory study and diagnostic
test results. Allergies, the date of the client’s last
menstrual period, and the reported use of medication for
headaches are all subjective data.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options that include data
that the nurse would obtain from the client during the
health history. Review the difference between subjective
and objective data if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 3 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is reading the report from the registered nurse for an
initial home visit to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease. The client was recently discharged from the hospital.
Which type of database does the nurse read that contains this
information from the client?7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Episodic
Follow-up
Emergency
Correct! Correct! Complete
Rationale: A complete database includes a complete
health history and a full physical examination. It describes
the client’s current and past state of health and forms a
baseline against which all future changes can be
measured. The complete database is collected in a
primary care setting, such as a pediatric or family practice
clinic; an independent or group private practice; a college
health service; a women’s health care agency; a visiting
nurse agency; or a community health agency. An episodic
database is compiled for a limited or short-term problem
and is focused mainly on one problem or one body
system. A follow-up database is used to evaluate an
identified problem at regular and appropriate intervals. An
emergency database involves the rapid collection of the
data that are often compiled as lifesaving measures are
being performed.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Noting the strategic words “initial home visit” in the
question will direct you to the correct option. Review the
different types of databases if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 4 1 / 1 pts
A 25-year-old client was seen in the clinic 2 weeks ago for
symptoms of a cold and is now complaining of chest congestion7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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and cough. The nurse should assist with the data collection by
collecting which information?
Data related to follow-up care
A complete (total health) database
Correct! Correct! Data related to the respiratory system
Data related to the treatment for the cold
Rationale: An episodic database is compiled for a limited
or short-term problem and is focused mainly on one
problem or body system. The history and examination will
be focused primarily on the respiratory system in this
client. A complete database includes a complete health
history and a full physical examination. It describes the
client's current and past state of health and forms a
baseline against which all future changes can be
measured. A follow-up database is used to evaluate an
identified problem at regular and appropriate intervals.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Focusing on the data in the question and noting the words
“now complaining of chest congestion and cough” will
direct you to the correct option. Review the different types
of databases if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 5 1 / 1 pts
A client is brought to the emergency department after a motor
vehicle accident. The client is alert and cooperative but has
sustained multiple fractures of the legs. How should the nurse
proceed with data collection?7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Collect health history information first, then perform the physical
examination.
Ask health history questions while performing the examination
and initiating emergency measures.
Correct! Correct!
Collect all information requested on the history form, including
social support, strengths, and coping patterns.
Perform emergency measures and not ask any health history
questions until the client’s fractures have been treated in the
operating room.
Rationale: If the client is alert and cooperative and if the
situation is not life-threatening, the nurse should attempt to
obtain as much subjective and objective data as possible
while caring for the client. Collecting health history
information and then performing the physical examination
does not address the priority, which is treating the client.
Collecting all data requested on the history does not
specifically address the client's immediate problems.
Performing emergency measures and not asking any
health history questions does not address data collection
before treatment.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Focus on the data in the question and note the strategic
words “alert and cooperative.” Noting that the client has
not sustained life-threatening injuries will direct you to the
correct option. Review the different types of databases if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Question 6 1 / 1 pts
A client who was given a diagnosis of hypertension 3 months ago
is at the clinic for a checkup. Which type of database does the
nurse use in performing an assessment?
Emergency
Correct! Correct! Follow-up
Complete (total)
Problem-centered
Rationale: A follow-up database is compiled to evaluate
the status of an identified problem at regular and
appropriate intervals. An emergency database calls for
rapid collection of the data, often at the same time
lifesaving measures are being performed. A complete
database includes a complete health history and a full
physical examination. It describes the client's current and
past state of health and forms a baseline against which all
future changes can be measured. An episodic database
(problem-centered) is compiled for a limited or short-term
problem. It is focused mainly on one problem or body
system.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question.
Noting the strategic words “at the clinic for a checkup” in
the question will direct you to the correct option. Review
the different types of databases if you had difficulty with
this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 7 1 / 1 pts7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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A Mexican American client with epilepsy is being seen at the
clinic for an initial examination. The nurse understands which
primary purpose of including cultural information in the health
assessment?
Confirm the medical diagnosis.
Make accurate nursing diagnoses.
Identify any hereditary traits related to the epilepsy.
Correct! Correct! Determine what the client believes has caused the epilepsy.
Rationale: The primary purpose for including cultural
information in the health assessment is to determine what
the client believes has caused the illness. In Mexican
American culture, epilepsy is seen as a reflection of
physical imbalance. Although the nurse may obtain data
related to family history (hereditary) and formulate nursing
diagnoses, these are not the primary reasons for including
cultural information in the health assessment. A nurse
gathers assessment data but does not confirm a medical
diagnosis.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject,
Mexican American cultural beliefs, to begin the process of
elimination. Eliminate the option that indicates to confirm a
medical diagnosis because this is not the role of the nurse.
To select from the remaining options, recall that cultural
beliefs exist in relation to the cause of a disease; this will
direct you to the correct option. Review the nurse’s role in
data collection and cultural considerations if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Cultural Diversity7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Question 8 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection uses the back of the hand
to feel the client’s skin on both arms and notes that the skin is
warm. The nurse makes which determination?
The client has a fever.
Correct! Correct! The skin temperature is normal.
The client needs to drink additional fluids.
The client needs to have the blanket removed.
Rationale: To assess skin temperature, the nurse would
first note the temperature of his or her own hands, then
use the backs (dorsa) of the hands to palpate the client’s
skin bilaterally. The skin should be warm, and the
temperature should be equal bilaterally; warmth suggests
normal circulatory status. The hands and feet may feel
slightly cooler in a cool environment. Giving the client
additional fluids, removing the blanket, and checking for a
fever are all incorrect responses to this finding.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question.
Note the strategic word “warm.” Recalling that warmth
suggests normal circulatory status will direct you to the
correct option. Review normal skin temperature if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Integumentary
Question 9 1 / 1 pts7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client’s skin is
very dry. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
Correct! Correct! Xerosis
Pruritus
Seborrhea
Actinic keratoses
Rationale: Dry skin is also called xerosis. In this condition,
the epidermis lacks moisture or sebum and is often
marked by a pattern of fine lines, scaling, and itching.
Causes include too-frequent bathing, low humidity, and
decreased production of sebum in aging skin. Pruritus is
the symptom of itching, an uncomfortable sensation that
prompts the urge to scratch the skin. Seborrhea is one of
several common skin conditions in which an
overproduction of sebum results in excessive oiliness or
dry scales. Actinic keratoses are red-tan scaly plaques
that grow over the years, becoming raised and roughened.
A silvery-white scale may adhere to the plaque. They
occur on sun-exposed surfaces and are directly related to
sun exposure. Actinic keratoses are premalignant and
may develop into squamous cell carcinoma.
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the subject, the
characteristics of various skin conditions and lesions, is
needed to answer this question. This knowledge and
noting the words “very dry” in the question will direct you
to the correct option. Review the skin conditions identified
in the options if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Adult Health/Integumentary7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Question 10 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to assist the health care provider examine a
client’s skin with the use of a Wood light. In preparing for this
diagnostic test, the nurse should perform which action?
Correct! Correct! Darken the room
Obtain informed consent from the client
Obtain a scalpel and a slide for diagnostic evaluation
Obtain medication to anesthetize the skin area before proceeding
with the examination
Rationale: A handheld long-wavelength ultraviolet (black)
light, or Wood light, is sometimes used during physical
examination of the skin. Areas of blue-green or red
fluorescence are associated with certain skin conditions.
Hypopigmented skin appears more prominent when it is
viewed under black light, greatly facilitating the evaluation
of pigment changes in fair-skinned clients. Examination of
the skin is always carried out in a darkened room. The test
is noninvasive, and the nurse should reassure the client
that no discomfort is associated with a Wood light
examination.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use data in the question to focus on
the name of the test. Recalling that this test is noninvasive
will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. Review
the procedure for performing a Wood light test if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Planning
Content Area: Adult Health/Integumentary7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Question 11 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection for a client with kidney
failure notes that the client has the appearance of generalized
edema over the entire body. The nurse documents this finding
using which terminology?
Correct! Correct! Anasarca
Ecchymosis
Unilateral edema
Increased vascularity of the skin tissue
Rationale: Bilateral edema, or edema that is generalized
over the entire body, is known as anasarca. This finding is
indicative of a central problem such as congestive heart
failure or kidney failure. It does not indicate increased
vascularity of skin tissue. Ecchymosis is a large patch of
capillary bleeding into the tissues (bruise).
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Focusing on the data in the question, noting the strategic
words “appearance of generalized edema” in the question
and visualizing the appearance of each condition in the
options will help you answer correctly. Review the terms
related to edema if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Adult Health/Renal
Question 12 1 / 1 pts
A nurse reviewing the medical record of a client with the
diagnosis of heart failure notes documentation indicating that the7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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client has deep pitting edema, that the indentation remains for a
short time, and that the leg looks swollen. How does the nurse
document this finding?
1+ edema
2+ edema
Correct! Correct! 3+ edema
4+ edema
Rationale: Edema, the accumulation of fluid in the
intercellular spaces, is not normally present. To check for
edema, the nurse presses his or her thumbs firmly against
the ankle malleolus or the tibia. Normally the skin surface
stays smooth. If the pressure leaves a dent in the skin,
“pitting” edema is present. Its presence is graded on the
following 4-point scale: 1+ denotes mild pitting and slight
indentation but no perceptible swelling of the leg, 2+
indicates moderate pitting in which the indentation
subsides rapidly, 3+ indicates deep pitting in which the
indentation remains for a short time and the leg looks
swollen, and 4+ denotes very deep pitting in which the
indentation lasts a long time and the leg is very swollen.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question.
Noting the words “indentation remains for a short time” in
the question will help direct you to the correct option.
Review the grading scale for edema if you had difficulty
with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Adult Health/Cardiovascular
Question 13 1 / 1 pts7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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A client complains that her skin is redder than normal. The nurse
notes the client’s skin, documents hyperemia, and explains to the
client that this condition is caused by which factor?
Contraction of the underlying blood vessels
A reduced amount of bilirubin in the blood
Diminished perfusion of the surrounding tissues
Correct! Correct! Excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries
Rationale: Hyperemia is an excess of blood in a part of the
body. The skin over a hyperemic area usually becomes
reddened or warm. The condition is caused by increased
blood flow, local relaxation of arterioles, or obstruction of
the outflow of blood from an area. A reduced amount of
bilirubin in the blood, diminished perfusion of the
surrounding tissues, and contraction of the underlying
blood vessels are all incorrect explanations for hyperemia.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Note
the relationship between the strategic words “skin is
redder” in the question and “excess blood” in the correct
option. Review the description and cause of hyperemia if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Adult Health/Integumentary
Question 14 0.5 / 1 pts
A clinic nurse about to meet a new client plans to gather
subjective data regarding the client’s health history. Which action
does the nurse take to help ensure the success of the
interview? Select all that apply.7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Correct! Correct! Ensuring that the room is private
Correct Answer Correct Answer Seeing that distracting objects are removed from the room
Having the client sit across a desk or table to give the client some
personal space
Maintaining a distance of 2 feet or closer between the nurse and
client
Switching on a dim light that will make the room cozier and help
the client relax
Question 15 1 / 1 pts
A nurse conducting an interview with a client collects subjective
data. During the interview, the nurse takes which action?
Takes minimal notes to avoid impeding observation of the client’s
nonverbal behaviors
Correct! Correct!
Takes a great deal of notes to allow the client to continue at his or
her own pace as the nurse records what he or she is saying
Takes notes because this allows the nurse to break eye contact
with the client, which may increase the client’s level of comfort
Takes notes to allow the nurse to shift attention away from the
client, which may make the nurse more comfortable7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: During an interview, the nurse keeps notetaking to a minimum and tries to focus his or her attention
on the client. Any note-taking should be secondary to the
dialogue and should not interfere with the client’s dialogue.
Note-taking during an interview breaks eye contact too
often; shifts the nurse’s attention away from the client,
diminishing his or her sense of importance; interrupts the
client’s narrative flow; impedes the nurse’s observation of
the client’s nonverbal behaviors; and may be threatening
to the client during the discussion of sensitive issues.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Noting the strategic word “minimal” will direct you to the
correct option. Review the nurse’s role with regard to notetaking during an interview if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 16 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to screen a client’s vision with the use of a
Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?
Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both
eyes together
Correct! Correct!
Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left
eyes separately
Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the
largest line on the chart7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line
that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired
vision
Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen
chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot with the
chart at the client’s eye level. The client is positioned on a
mark exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client uses an
opaque card to shield one eye at a time during the test;
after each eye is tested, both eyes are assessed together.
The client is asked to read through the chart to the
smallest line of letters he or she can discern. The client is
encouraged to read the next smallest line as well.
Therefore the other options are incorrect.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a vision
screening test. Visualizing each of the descriptions in the
options will direct you to the correct one. Review the
procedure for using the Snellen eye chart if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 17 1 / 1 pts
A nurse reviewing a client’s record notes that the result of the
client’s latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse
interprets the client’s results in which way?
The client is legally blind.
The client has normal vision.7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with
normal vision can read at 80 feet.
Correct! Correct!
The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with
normal vision can read at 20 feet.
Rationale: When recording the results of visual acuity
testing with the use of the Snellen chart, the nurse would
use the numeric fraction noted at the end of the last line
on the chart read successfully by the client. The top
number (numerator) indicates the distance the client is
standing from the chart; the denominator is the distance at
which a normal eye could have read that particular line.
Therefore a reading of 20/80 means that the client can
read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal
vision can read at 80 feet.. Legal blindness is defined as
the best corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or
worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject,
Snellen testing. Recalling that the client stands 20 feet
from the Snellen chart when visual acuity is being tested
will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure
for interpreting the results from the Snellen visual acuity
test if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Assessment
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 18 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is assisting with data collection of the peripheral vision of
a client using the confrontation test. To carry out this procedure,
the nurse performs which action?7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Asks the client to discriminate numbers on a chart composed of
colored dots
Darkens the room and asks the client to identify colored blocks
and shapes that appear in the visual field
Has both the client and nurse cover the right eye, stare at each
other's uncovered eye, and bring a small object into the visual
field, then repeat the test with the left eye
Sits at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the
client cover the eye directly opposite the nurse’s, after which
each stares at the other’s uncovered eye, and the nurse brings a
small object into the visual field
Correct! Correct!7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The confrontation test is a gross measure of
peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision
with the examiner’s vision under the assumption that the
examiner’s vision is normal. The examiner positions
himself or herself at eye level with the client, about 2 feet
away. The examiner directs the client to cover one eye
with an opaque card and look straight at the examiner with
the other. The examiner covers his or her own eye
opposite the client’s covered one. Next the examiner holds
a pencil or flicking finger as a target midline between
himself or herself and the client and slowly advances it
from the periphery in several directions. The examiner
asks the client to say “now” as the target is first seen. This
sighting should occur just as the examiner sees the object
for the first time. Asking the client to discriminate numbers
on a chart composed of colored dots and darkening the
room and asking the client to identify colored blocks and
shapes that appear in the visual field are both components
of testing for color vision.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject, and
recall that the confrontation test assesses peripheral
vision. This will assist you in eliminating the options that
do not address this concept. To select from the remaining
options, visualize each. This will direct you to the correct
option. Review the confrontation vision test if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 19 1 / 1 pts
A nurse performing an eye examination uses an ophthalmoscope
to best visualize which area?
Iris
Cornea7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Correct! Correct! Optic disc
Conjunctiva
Rationale: The ophthalmoscope enlarges the examiner’s
view of the eye so that the media (anterior chamber, lens,
vitreous humor) and the ocular fundus (the internal surface
of the retina) can be examined. The optic disc is located
on the internal surface of the retina. The iris, conjunctiva,
and cornea can be examined without the use of an
ophthalmoscope.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject, and
think about the anatomic structures of the eye. Recalling
that the optic disc is located on the internal surface of the
retina will direct you to the correct option. Review the
structures that need to be examined with the use of an
ophthalmoscope if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 20 1 / 1 pts
A nurse notes that a client’s physical examination record states
that the client’s eyes moved normally through the six cardinal
fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which
aspect of the eye function is normal?
Near vision
Central vision
Peripheral vision
Correct! Correct! Ocular movements7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Leading the client’s eyes through the six
cardinal fields of gaze will elicit any muscle weakness
during movement. This test assesses the function of the
medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior
oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus
muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Near vision is tested
with the use of a handheld vision screener that contains
various sizes of print. Central vision is measured with the
use of a Snellen chart. Peripheral vision is measured with
the confrontation test.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Recalling that the six cardinal fields of gaze are used to
test for muscle weakness will direct you to the correct
option. Also note the relationship of the strategic words
“moved” in the question and “movements” in the correct
option. Review the six cardinal fields of gaze if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Eye
Question 21 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection and notes that the client
exhibits rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball
when looking at the nurse. The nurse documents this finding
using which term?
Ptosis
Correct! Correct! Nystagmus
Scleral icterus
Exophthalmos7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Nystagmus is a fine oscillating movement, most
notable around the iris. The nurse checks for nystagmus
when assessing a client for ocular muscle weakness. Mild
nystagmus at extreme lateral gaze is normal; nystagmus
at any other position is not. Ptosis is a drooping of the
eyelid. Scleral icterus is a yellowing of the sclera,
extending up to the cornea, that indicates jaundice.
Exophthalmos, a noticeable protrusion of the eyeball, is a
characteristic sign of hyperthyroidism.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Recalling that exophthalmos is a protrusion of the eyeball
associated with hyperthyroidism will assist you in
eliminating this option. To select from the remaining
options, focus on the data in the question. Note the words
“oscillating movements” in the question and read each
option carefully to find the correct one. Review the
description of nystagmus if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Adult Health/Eye
Question 22 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection regarding the client’s eyes
notes that the pupils get larger when the client looks at an object
in the distance and become smaller when the client looks at a
nearby object. How does the nurse document this finding?
Myopia
Hyperopia
Photophobia
Correct! Correct! Accommodation7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Accommodation is adaptation of the eye for
near vision. Movement of the ciliary muscles increases the
curvature of the lens. To observe accommodation, the
examiner notes convergence (motion toward) of the axes
of the eyeballs and pupillary constriction. Myopia is
nearsightedness. Hyperopia is farsightedness.
Photophobia is abnormal sensitivity to light, especially of
the eyes.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question.
Note the relationship between the data “pupils get larger”
and “become smaller” in the question and the correct
option. Review the description of accommodation if you
had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Adult Health/Eye
Question 23 0 / 1 pts
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client whose health
care provider used an otoscope to examine the client’s ears.
Which finding indicates to the nurse that the tympanic membrane
is normal?7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Correct Answer Correct Answer7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Y You Answered ou Answered7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The tympanic membrane is shiny and
translucent, with a pearly gray color. The appearance of a
yellow clump of material indicates the presence of a piece
of cerumen in the external meatus. An excessive amount
of cerumen in the external auditory canal appears dark
and covers a large part of the canal and tympanic
membrane. A hole in the tympanic membrane indicates
perforation of the membrane.
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the subject,
the appearance of the tympanic membrane, is needed to
answer the question. It is necessary to recall that the
normal tympanic membrane is pearly gray in color. Review
the normal findings on otoscopic examination of the ear if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 24 0 / 1 pts
An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to
middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection
of the ears does the nurse question this client?
Y You Answered ou Answered Loud music
Use of power tools
Occupational noise
Correct Answer Correct Answer Exposure to cigarette smoke7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated
with colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the
eustachian tubes. Risk factors include youth (otitis media
is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities,
immune deficiencies, exposure to cigarette smoke, family
history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections,
and allergies. Loud music, the use of power tools, and
occupational noise can all cause hearing loss. Hearing
loss may occur as a result of an acute loud noise (acoustic
trauma) or long-term exposure to loud noise (noiseinduced hearing loss).
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
focus on the word “infection” in the question. Eliminate the
comparable or alike options that refer to noise. Review the
causes of middle ear infections if you had difficulty with
this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Ear
Question 25 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult
client. Which action does the nurse take before inserting the
otoscope?
Correct! Correct! Pulling the pinna up and back
Pulling the pinna down and forward
Tipping the client’s head down and toward the examiner
Tipping the client’s head down and away from the examiner7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: In an adult client, the nurse pulls the pinna up
and back to help straighten the S shape of the ear canal.
The client’s head is tilted slightly away from the examiner,
toward the client’s opposite shoulder. The nurse holds the
pinna gently and firmly until the examination is complete
and the otoscope has been removed from the client’s ear.
The nurse pulls the pinna down when examining an infant
or a child younger than 3 years.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, examining the
ear of an adult client with an otoscope. Visualize the
descriptions in each of the options to direct you to the
correct option. Review the procedure for using an
otoscope if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 26 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is performing a voice test. To carry out this procedure
correctly, the nurse asks the client to repeat words that are
provided in which manner?
Spoken in a soft tone of voice by the nurse about 5 feet in front of
the client
Whispered by the nurse from the client’s side at a distance of 1 to
2 feet from the ear being tested
Correct! Correct!
Spoken by the nurse from the client’s side in a normal tone of
voice about 10 feet from the ear being tested
Whispered at a distance of 20 feet by the nurse while he or she is
standing in front of the client7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: In performing the voice test, the nurse tests one
ear at a time while masking hearing in the other ear to
prevent transmission around the head. The nurse shields
his or her lips so that the client cannot compensate for
hearing loss (consciously or unconsciously) by lip-reading
or using the “good” ear. The nurse stands 1 to 2 feet from
the client's ear, exhales, and slowly whispers some twosyllable words. A client with normal hearing repeats each
word correctly.
Test-Taking Strategy: Visualize each option. Eliminate the
comparable or alike options that indicate that the nurse
must stand in front of the client; if the nurse did this, the
client would be able to lip-read. To select from the
remaining options, note the words “about 10 feet”; this will
help you eliminate this option. Review the procedure for
the voice test if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 27 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who
complains of hearing loss. In which area does the nurse first
place an activated tuning fork?
On the client’s teeth
On the client’s forehead
Correct! Correct! On the client’s mastoid bone
On the midline of the client's skull7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated
tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind
the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches).
When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the
ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the
client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard.
The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork
is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front
of the ear canal. In the Weber test, an activated tuning fork
is placed on the midline of the skull, the forehead, or the
teeth.
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the subject, the Rinne
test, is needed to answer this question. Visualizing the
procedure for performing this test will direct you to the
correct option. Review the Rinne test if you had difficulty
with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 28 1 / 1 pts
A client complains that he feels as though his ear is blocked and
tells the nurse that he has a history of cerumen impaction in the
external ear. The nurse, inspecting the ears for cerumen
impaction, checks for which finding?
Redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane
An external auditory canal that is longer than normal
The presence of edema in the external auditory canal
A yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory
canal
Correct! Correct!7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Cerumen (ear wax) is a yellowish or brownish
waxy secretion produced by vestigial apocrine sweat
glands in the external ear canal. It becomes impacted
because of the narrow tortuous canal or as a result of poor
cleaning methods. Cerumen may partially obscure the
eardrum or totally occlude the ear canal. Even when the
canal is 90% to 95% blocked, hearing is normal, but when
the last 5% to 10% becomes occluded (e.g., when
cerumen expands after the client swims or showers), the
client experiences sudden hearing loss and a feeling of
fullness in the ear. Redness and swelling of the tympanic
membrane, edema in the external auditory canal, and an
external auditory canal that is longer than normal are not
descriptions of cerumen.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
focus on the strategic word “cerumen” in the question.
Recalling that cerumen is ear wax will direct you to the
correct option. Review the characteristics of cerumen if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 29 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is palpating a client’s sinus areas. Which sensation does
the nurse expect the client to indicate that he or she is feeling
during palpation if the sinuses are normal?
Correct! Correct! Firm pressure
Pain behind the eyes
Pain during palpation
Pressure producing an acute headache7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The client would normally feel a firm pressure
as the nurse palpates his or her sinuses. Pain experienced
during palpation of the sinuses is an indication of acute
sinusitis. Headaches that vary in intensity with position
changes or when secretions drain indicate acute sinusitis.
An acute headache should not occur with palpation of the
sinuses.
Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “if the
sinuses are normal” in the query of the question. Eliminate
the options that are comparable or alike and indicate the
presence of discomfort on palpation of the sinuses.
Review the expected findings when palpating the sinuses
if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 30 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which
action does the nurse take to test this nerve?
Asking the client to stick out his or her tongue and watching the
client for tremors
Touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and
noting the gag reflex
Depressing the client’s tongue with a tongue blade and noting
pharyngeal function as the client says “ah.”7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Placing his or her hands on the client’s shoulders and asking the
client to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse’s
hands
Correct! Correct!
Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve XI
(spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the
sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. The
nurse checks that these muscles are equal in strength by
asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against
resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the
shoulders against resistance from the nurse’s hands.
Asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for
tremors is the method for assessing the function of cranial
nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Assessment of pharyngeal
function reveals the function of cranial nerves IX
(glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve).
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options that address
pharyngeal function. To select from the remaining options,
recall that cranial nerve XI is the spinal accessory nerve,
which will direct you to the correct option. Review the
procedure for assessing the function of cranial nerve XI if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 31 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to test cranial nerve I. Which item does the
nurse obtain to test this nerve?
Correct! Correct! Coffee
A tuning fork7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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A wisp of cotton
An ophthalmoscope
Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve I
(olfactory nerve), the nurse tests the sense of smell in a
client who reports loss of smell. The nurse assesses the
patency of the client s nostrils by occluding one nostril at a
time and asking the client to sniff. Next, with the client s
eyes closed, the nurse occludes one nostril and presents
a nonnoxious aromatic substance such as coffee,
toothpaste, orange, vanilla, soap, or peppermint. A tuning
fork is used to assess the function of cranial nerve VIII
(acoustic nerve). A wisp of cotton is used to assess the
sensory function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). An
ophthalmoscope is used to assess the internal structures
of the eye.
Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “olfactory,”
and recall this has to do with the sense of smell. Eliminate
comparable or alike options that involve functions other
than the olfactory sense. Recalling that cranial nerve I is
the olfactory nerve will direct you to the correct option.
Review cranial nerve I and the method of testing its
function if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 32 0 / 1 pts
A nurse inspecting a client’s throat touches the posterior wall with
a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents
normal function of which cranial nerves?
Y You Answered ou Answered Cranial nerves V and VI7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Cranial nerves XII and VIII
Cranial nerves I and II
Correct Answer Correct Answer Cranial nerves IX and X
Rationale: The motor function of cranial nerve IX
(glossopharyngeal nerve) and cranial nerve X (vagus
nerve) is tested by depressing the tongue with a tongue
blade and noting the pharyngeal movement as the client
says “ah.” Motor function of these nerves is also tested by
touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade
and noting the gag reflex. Eliciting a response from cranial
nerve V (trigeminal nerve) tests the muscles of
mastication. Eliciting a response from cranial nerve I
(olfactory nerve) tests the function of smell. Eliciting a
response from cranial nerve II (optic nerve) involves eye
examinations. In testing cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal
nerve), the examiner inspects symmetry and movement of
the tongue.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question.
Recalling that cranial nerve IX is the glossopharyngeal
nerve and cranial nerve X is the vagus nerve will direct
you to the correct option. Review the cranial nerves if you
had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 33 0 / 1 pts
A nurse is performing a throat assessment on an assigned client.
On asking the client to stick his tongue out, the nurse notes that it
protrudes in the midline. Which cranial nerve is the nurse testing?
Cranial nerve X7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Cranial nerve V
Y You Answered ou Answered Cranial nerve IX
Correct Answer Correct Answer Cranial nerve XII
Rationale: To test cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve),
the examiner inspects symmetry and movement of the
tongue. The nurse looks for a forward thrust in the midline
as the client sticks out the tongue. The examiner tests the
motor function of cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal
nerve) and X (vagus nerve) by depressing the client’s
tongue with a tongue blade and noting the pharyngeal
movement as the client says “ah.” Motor function of these
nerves is also tested by touching the posterior pharyngeal
wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex. Eliciting
a response from cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) tests
the muscles of mastication.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question.
Recalling that cranial nerve XII is the hypoglossal nerve
will direct you to the correct option. Review the method of
testing cranial nerve XII if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 34 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to listen to the breath sounds of a client. The
nurse should listen to the breath sounds in which way?
Ask the client to lie prone.
Ask the client to breathe in and out through the nose.7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Hold the bell of the stethoscope lightly against the chest.
Listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the
chest.
Correct! Correct!
Rationale: To best listen to breath sounds, the nurse asks
the client to sit, leaning slightly forward, with the arms
resting comfortably across the lap. The client is instructed
to breathe through the mouth, a little deeper than usual,
but to stop if he or she feels dizzy. The flat diaphragm
endpiece of the stethoscope is held firmly against the
client’s chest wall. The nurse listens for at least one full
respiration in each location on the chest. Side-to-side
comparison is most important in the assessment of breath
sounds.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject,
listening to breath sounds, to assist with the process of
elimination. Read carefully and visualize each of the
options. Thinking about the procedure for listening to
breath sounds and noting the words “one full respiration”
will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure
for listening to breath sounds if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 35 1 / 1 pts
A nurse listening to a client’s chest to determine the quality of
vocal resonance asks the client to repeat the word “ninety-nine”
as the nurse listens through the stethoscope. As the client says
the word, the nurse is able to hear the word clearly. The nurse
documents this assessment finding in which way?
Normal egophony7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Abnormal vesicular breath sounds
Correct! Correct! Abnormal bronchophony
Normal whispered pectoriloquy
Rationale: The quality of voice resonance can be
performed by testing for the presence of bronchophony,
egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy. In bronchophony,
the nurse asks the client to repeat the word “ninety-nine”
as the nurse listens to the client’s chest with a
stethoscope. Normal voice transmission is soft, muffled,
and indistinct. The nurse normally hears sound through
the stethoscope but cannot distinguish exactly what is
being said. A pathologic condition that increases lung
density enhances the transmission of voice sounds; in
such a case, the nurse will hear “ninety-nine” clearly.
Vesicular breath sounds are heard over peripheral lung
fields where air flows through smaller bronchioles and
alveoli. In egophony, the client’s chest is auscultated while
the client phonates a long “ee-ee-ee-ee” sound. Normally
the nurse hears “eeeeee” through the stethoscope. In
whispered pectoriloquy, the client is asked to whisper a
phrase such as “one-two-three” as the nurse listens to the
chest. The normal response is a muffled, almost inaudible
sound.
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the subject, the
methods for determining the quality of breath sounds, is
needed to answer this question. For this question it is
necessary to remember that in bronchophony normal
voice transmission is soft, muffled, and indistinct. Review
bronchophony, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy and
the normal findings if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 36 1 / 1 pts7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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A nurse is preparing to check the breath sounds of a client. Over
which anatomic area does the nurse place the stethoscope when
auscultating for bronchial breath sounds?
1 2
Correct! Correct!
3 47/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds are located
over the trachea and larynx. Bronchovesicular breath
sounds are located over major bronchi. Vesicular breath
sounds are located over the peripheral lung fields. The
upper sternal area is where main bronchi are located.
Breath sounds are normally not heard over the cricoid
cartilage.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options. From the
remaining options, recall that bronchial breath sounds are
also noted as tracheal sounds; this will direct you to the
correct option. Review the location of normal breath
sounds if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 37 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is auscultating for vesicular breath sounds in a client. Of
which quality would the nurse expect these normal breath sounds
to be?
Harsh
Hollow
Tubular
Correct! Correct! Rustling7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds are rustling and sound
like wind blowing through trees. Bronchial (tracheal)
breath sounds are harsh, hollow, tubular sounds.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options (tubular and
hollow). In considering the remaining options, think about
the location of vesicular breath sounds. This will help
direct you to the correct option. Review the normal quality
of vesicular breath sounds if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 38 1 / 1 pts
A nurse sees documentation in the client’s record indicating that
the health care provider has noted the presence of adventitious
breath sounds. The nurse knows that these types of sounds have
which aspect?
Normally heard in the lungs
Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx
Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields
Correct! Correct! Abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Adventitious breath sounds are added sounds
that are not normally heard in the lungs. If present, they
are heard as being superimposed on the breath sounds.
They are caused when moving air collides with secretions
in the tracheobronchial passageways or when previously
deflated airways pop open. Hollow sounds heard over the
trachea and larynx are normal bronchial (tracheal) breath
sounds. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung
fields are normal vesicular breath sounds.
Test-Taking Strategy: Note that two options are opposing
statements (normally heard and abnormal sounds). This
may indicate that one of these options is correct. From this
point, recall the definition of adventitious and that
adventitious breath sounds are abnormal. Review
adventitious breath sounds if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Respiratory
Question 39 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is assisting with data collection on a client for the major
risk factors associated with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which
modifiable risk factor does the nurse obtain data on from the
client?
Age
Ethnicity
Correct! Correct! Hypertension
Genetic inheritance7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Risk factors for CAD may be categorized as
modifiable and unmodifiable. Unmodifiable risk factors
include age, sex, ethnicity, genetic predisposition, and
family history of heart disease. Modifiable risk factors
include increased concentrations of serum lipids,
hypertension, cigarette smoking, obesity, and level of
physical activity. Contributing modifiable risk factors
include diabetes mellitus and a stressful lifestyle.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
note the strategic word “modifiable” in the query of the
question. The only risk factor listed that can be changed is
hypertension. Review modifiable and unmodifiable risk
factors for CAD if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Cardiovascular
Question 40 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection on the carotid artery of a
client with cardiovascular disease. The nurse performs this in
which way?
Palpating the carotid artery in the upper third of the neck
Palpating both arteries simultaneously to compare amplitude
Listening to the carotid artery, using the bell of the stethoscope to
assess for bruits
Correct! Correct!
Instructing the client to take slow, deep breaths while the nurse
listens to the carotid artery7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: To assess the carotid artery, the nurse uses the
techniques of palpation and auscultation. The nurse
palpates each carotid artery medial to the sternomastoid
muscle in the neck. The nurse should avoid putting
pressure on the carotid sinus higher in the neck because
of the risk of excessive vagal stimulation, which could slow
the heart rate. The nurse should palpate one artery at a
time to avoid compromising arterial blood flow to the brain.
The nurse should auscultate each carotid artery for the
presence of a bruit. A bruit is a blowing, swishing sound
indicating blood flow turbulence; normally a bruit is not
present. The nurse should lightly place the bell of the
stethoscope over the carotid artery and ask the client to
hold his or her breath briefly so that tracheal breath
sounds do not mask or mimic a carotid artery bruit.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject,
assessment of the carotid artery, to assist with the process
of elimination. Palpating both arteries simultaneously will
obstruct blood flow to the brain, so eliminate this option.
Next, recalling the location of the carotid artery will assist
you in eliminating the option that indicates that the nurse
should palpate in the upper third of the neck. To select
from the remaining options, eliminate the option that
instructs the client to take slow, deep breaths, because
this client action would prevent the nurse from hearing a
bruit if one is present. Review the technique for assessing
the carotid arteries if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Cardiovascular
Question 41 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to listen to the apical heart rate in the area of
the mitral valve in an adult client. The nurse should place the
stethoscope on which part of the client’s chest?
Second left interspace7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Second right interspace
Left lower sternal border
Correct! Correct! Fifth left interspace at the midclavicular line
Rationale: The mitral valve is located in the area of the
fifth left interspace, at the midclavicular line. The pulmonic
valve is located in the area of the second left interspace.
The aortic valve is located in the area of the second right
interspace. The tricuspid valve is located in the area of the
left lower sternal border.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the area in
which the mitral valve is located. Visualizing the anatomy
of the heart will direct you to the correct option. Review the
anatomy of the heart and areas of auscultation of the heart
valves if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 42 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalis pedis pulse. The
nurse palpates this pulse by placing the fingertips in which
location?
Behind the knee
Correct! Correct! Lateral to the extensor tendon of the big toe
In the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the
anterior superior iliac spines
Rationale: The dorsalis pedis pulse is palpated lateral to
and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe. The
popliteal pulse is palpated behind the knee. The posterior
tibial pulse is palpated in the groove between the
malleolus and the Achilles tendon. The femoral artery is
located below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the
pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use data in the question to assist
with the process of elimination. Focusing on the name of
the pulse, the dorsalis pedis, and recalling the location of
the pulse points in the body will direct you to the correct
option. Recall that the term “pedis” refers to the feet.
Review the location of the various pulses if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 43 1 / 1 pts
A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain
develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with
rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely
experiencing which disorder?
Venous insufficiency
Correct! Correct! Intermittent claudication
Sore muscles from overexertion
Muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery
disease is known as intermittent claudication. Usually the
client can walk only a certain distance before cramping,
burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces him or her to
stop; the pain subsides after rest. When the client
resumes walking, he or she can walk the same distance
before the pain returns. The pain is reproducible. As the
disease progresses, the client walks shorter and shorter
distances before pain recurs. Ultimately pain may even
occur while the client is at rest. Therefore the other options
are incorrect.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options that address the
muscles. To select from the remaining options, focusing on
the client’s diagnosis will assist you in eliminating the
option that addresses a venous problem. Review the
characteristics of intermittent claudication if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Adult Health/Cardiovascular
Question 44 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection of the peripheral vascular
system performs the Allen test. The nurse understands that this
test is used to determine the patency of which blood vessel(s)?
Capillaries
Pedal pulses
Femoral arteries
Correct! Correct! Radial and ulnar arteries7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The nurse would perform the Allen test to
determine the patency of the radial and ulnar arteries. The
nurse applies direct pressure over the client’s ulnar and
radial arteries simultaneously. While the nurse is applying
pressure, the client is asked to open and close the hand
repeatedly; the hand should blanch. The nurse then
releases pressure from the ulnar artery while compressing
the radial artery and assesses the color of the extremity
distal to the pressure point. If pinkness fails to return within
6 seconds, the ulnar artery is insufficient, indicating that
the radial artery should not be used to obtain a blood
specimen.
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the subject, the
purpose of the Allen test, is needed to answer this
question. Recalling that this test is performed before a
specimen for arterial blood gases is drawn from the radial
artery will direct you to the correct option. Review the Allen
test if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Cardiovascular
Question 45 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is assisting with data collection on a client. On
auscultation of the abdomen, the nurse hears a bruit over the
abdominal aorta. Which action should the nurse take as a priority
on the basis of this finding?
Document the finding
Palpate the area for a mass
Correct! Correct! Notify the health care provider
Percuss the abdomen to check for tympany7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Detection of a bruit over the aorta on
assessment of the abdomen could indicate the presence
of an aneurysm. The nurse would notify the health care
provider of the finding and would not palpate or percuss
the abdomen because of the risk of rupture. Although the
nurse would document the findings, this is not the priority
action.
Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “priority.”
Recalling the significance of a bruit and remembering that
its presence could indicate an aneurysm will direct you to
the correct option. Review the abnormal assessment
findings in an abdominal assessment if you had difficulty
with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Physiological Integrity
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Adult Health/Cardiovascular
Question 46 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to measure a client’s calf circumference. The
nurse performs this procedure by performing which action?
Placing a tape measure around the widest point of the lower leg
Correct! Correct!
Measuring 2 inches above the knee and placing the tape
measure around the client’s leg at this point
Measuring 2 inches above the ankle and placing the tape
measure around the client’s leg at this point
Measuring 2 inches below the patella and placing the tape
measure around the client’s leg at this point7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The nurse uses a nonstretchable tape measure
to measure the calf at its widest point, taking care to
measure the opposite leg in exactly the same place, the
same number of centimeters down from the patella or
other landmark. The descriptions in the incorrect options
would not provide an accurate measurement of calf
circumference.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
visualize the location of each option. Use data in the
question and note the words “calf circumference” in the
question will direct you to the correct option. Review the
procedure for measuring the calf circumference if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/physical exam
Question 47 1 / 1 pts
An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine
the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results
of these tests indicate that the client’s cardiac output is 5 L/min.
The nurse makes which conclusion?
The client has a low cardiac output.
The client has a high cardiac output.
Correct! Correct! The client has a normal cardiac output.
The client will need a blood transfusion.7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: In the normal resting adult, the heart pumps
between 4 and 6 L of blood per minute throughout the
body. This cardiac output equals the volume of blood in
each systole (called stroke volume) multiplied by the
number of beats/min. Therefore a cardiac output of 5
L/min is a normal cardiac output. The other options are
incorrect interpretations.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject,
normal cardiac output, to assist you with the process of
elimination. Recalling that the heart normally pumps
between 4 and 6 L of blood per minute will direct you to
the correct option. Review normal cardiac output if you
had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Assessment
Content Area: Adult Health/Cardiovascular
Question 48 1 / 1 pts
A nurse palpates a client’s radial pulse, noting the rate, rhythm,
and force, and concludes that the client’s pulse is normal. Which
notation would the nurse make in the client’s record to document
the force of the client’s pulse?
4+
3+
Correct! Correct! 2+
1+7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: When assessing a pulse, the nurse should note
the rhythm, amplitude, and symmetry of pulses and should
compare peripheral pulses on the two sides for rate,
rhythm, and quality. A 4-point scale may be used to
assess the force (amplitude) of the pulse: 4+, bounding
pulse; 3+, increased pulse; 2+, normal pulse; 1+, weak
pulse. In this case the nurse would grade the client’s pulse
as 2+.
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the subject,
the scale used to grade the force of a client’s pulse, is
needed to answer this question. Remember that on a 4-
point scale, 2+ is a normal pulse. Review the grading
scale used to assess the force (amplitude) of the pulse if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Adult Health/Cardiovascular
Question 49 1 / 1 pts
At a health screening clinic, a nurse is educating a young woman
about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse determines that
the client demonstrates understanding when she makes which
statement?
BSE must be performed every other month.
BSE is performed on the day menstruation begins.
Monthly BSE is the only way to ensure early detection of breast
cancer.
Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation
both in the shower and while lying down.
Correct! Correct!7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: BSE is performed monthly and should be
carried out after the menstrual period, on the seventh day
of the menstrual cycle, when the breasts are smallest and
least congested. A woman who is not having menstrual
periods should select a specific day of the month and
perform BSE on that day each month. BSE is not the only
way to detect early breast cancer. Women should get
regular physical examinations and mammograms as
prescribed. The woman is taught to inspect the breasts
while standing in front of a mirror, to palpate the breasts
while in the shower (because soap and water assist in
palpation), and, finally, to perform palpation while lying
supine.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the option that contains the closed-ended word
“only.” Knowing that BSE is performed monthly on the
seventh day of the menstrual cycle will assist you in
eliminating the remaining incorrect options. Review the
teaching points related to BSE if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Evaluating
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Evaluation
Content Area: Health assessment/physical exam
Question 50 1 / 1 pts
A community health nurse is instructing a group of female clients
about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse instructs the
clients to perform the examination in which manner?
At the onset of menstruation
Every month during ovulation
Weekly, at the same time of day
Correct! Correct! One week after menstruation begins7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: BSE should be performed after the menstrual
period, on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle, when
the breasts are smallest and least congested. The
pregnant woman or menopausal woman who is not having
menstrual periods is taught to select a specific day to
examine the breasts every month. Therefore the other
options are incorrect.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options. At the onset of
menstruation and during ovulation, hormonal changes are
taking place. To select from the remaining options, recall
that it is not necessary to perform BSE weekly; this will
assist you in eliminating this option. Review the procedure
for teaching BSE if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 51 1 / 1 pts
Assisting with data collection, a nurse notes tenderness while
lightly palpating a client’s right lower quadrant of the abdomen.
The nurse determines that this finding is most likely associated
with which anatomic structure?
Liver
Spleen
Pancreas
Correct! Correct! Appendix7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The appendix is located in the right lower
quadrant. The spleen is a soft mass of lymphatic tissue
located on the posterolateral wall of the abdominal cavity,
immediately under the diaphragm. The pancreas is a soft
lobular gland located behind the stomach. The liver fills
most of the right upper quadrant and extends over to the
left midclavicular line.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the right lower
quadrant of the abdomen. Recalling the anatomic location
of the abdominal organs will direct you to the correct
option. Review the location of the anatomic structures if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Gastrointestinal
Question 52 1 / 1 pts
While the nurse is assisting with data collection, the client tells
the nurse that he is having difficulty swallowing medications and
food. The nurse gathers additional subjective data and
documents that the client is experiencing which disorder?
Pyrosis
Anorexia
Eructation
Correct! Correct! Dysphagia7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: “Dysphagia” is the term used to indicate
difficulty swallowing, which can occur in disorders of the
throat or esophagus. Anorexia is a loss of appetite.
Eructation is belching. Pyrosis is heartburn, a burning
sensation in the esophagus and stomach caused by the
reflux of gastric acid.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use data in the question to assist
with the process of elimination. Note the relationship of the
word “difficulty” in the question and “dysphagia” in the
correct option. Review the terms identified in the options if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Physiological Integrity
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Adult Health/Gastrointestinal
Question 53 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to auscultate for the presence of bowel
sounds in a client who has just undergone surgery. The nurse
places the stethoscope in which abdominal quadrant first?
Left upper quadrant
Left lower quadrant
Right upper quadrant
Correct! Correct! Right lower quadrant7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The nurse begins auscultating in the right lower
quadrant at the ileocecal valve because bowel sounds are
normally always present there. The nurse then listens for
bowel sounds in the other quadrants.
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the subject, the
procedure for auscultating bowel sounds, is needed to
answer this question. Remember that the nurse starts by
listening in the right lower quadrant. Review this technique
for auscultating bowel sounds if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 54 1 / 1 pts
When examining the abdomen, a nurse auscultates before
palpating and percussing the abdomen. The nurse performs the
assessment in this manner for which reason?
It is less painful for the client.
Correct! Correct! Palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis.
It identifies any potential areas of abdominal tenderness.
It gives the client more time to become comfortable with the
examiner.7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: When performing an abdominal assessment,
the nurse auscultates the abdomen after inspection.
Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion
because these assessment techniques can increase
peristalsis, which would yield a false interpretation of
bowel sounds. The other options identify incorrect reasons
for auscultating the abdomen before palpating and
percussing it.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Thinking about the effects of palpating and percussing the
abdomen and focusing on the subject, examining the
abdomen, will direct you to the correct option. Review the
procedure for an abdominal assessment if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 55 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to auscultate
the client’s bowel sounds. The client tells the nurse that he ate
lunch just 45 minutes ago. On the basis of this information, which
finding does the nurse expect to note?
Correct! Correct! Gurgling sounds
Hypoactive sounds
Low-pitched sounds
An absence of sounds7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Bowel sounds are a result of the movement of
air and fluid through the small intestine. Depending on the
time elapsed since the client has eaten, a wide range of
normal sounds may occur. Bowel sounds are high-pitched,
gurgling, cascading sounds, occurring irregularly between
five and 30 times a minute. Bowel sounds are hypoactive
(low pitched) or entirely absent after abdominal surgery or
with inflammation of the peritoneum.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options (hypoactive, low
pitched, absence). Noting that the client ate 45 minutes
ago will also help direct you to the correct option. Review
the expected findings on auscultation of bowel sounds if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 56 0 / 1 pts
While reviewing a client’s health care record, a nurse notes
documentation of the presence of borborygmus on abdominal
assessment. Which finding does the nurse expect to note when
auscultating the client’s bowel sounds?
Hypoactive bowel sounds
Y You Answered ou Answered Low-pitched bowel sounds
Correct Answer Correct Answer Hyperactive bowel sounds
An absence of bowel sounds7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Borborygmus, a type of hyperactive bowel
sound, is fairly common. It indicates hyperperistalsis, and
the client may describe it as a growling stomach.
Hypoactive bowel sounds are low pitched. Hypoactive
sounds (or an absence of sounds) follow abdominal
surgery or occur with inflammation of the peritoneum.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate comparable or alike options (hypoactive, low
pitched, absence) and recall that borborygmus is a type of
hyperactive bowel sound. Review the description of
borborygmus if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Gastrointestinal
Question 57 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection is monitoring the client for
costovertebral angle tenderness. When the nurse percusses the
area, the client complains of sharp pain. The nurse interprets this
finding as most indicative of which disorder?
Liver enlargement
Ovarian infection
Spleen enlargement
Correct! Correct! Kidney inflammation7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: When assessing for costovertebral angle
tenderness, the nurse is checking for kidney tenderness.
Sharp pain that occurs on percussion of the costovertebral
angle indicates inflammation of the kidney or paranephric
area. To assess the kidney, the nurse places one hand
over the 12th rib, at the costovertebral angle, on the back.
The nurse then thumps that hand with the ulnar edge of
the other fist. The client normally feels a thud and should
not experience pain. Ovarian infection, liver, or spleen
enlargement are not associated with the costovertebral
angle.
Test-Taking Strategy: Recalling the anatomic location of
the costovertebral angle will direct you to the correct
option. Eliminate the incorrect comparable or alike options
that are not associated with kidney disorders. Review the
indications associated with costovertebral angle
tenderness if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 58 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is assisting with data collection of a client with suspected
cholecystitis. Which finding does the nurse expect to note if
cholecystitis is present?
Homan sign
Correct! Correct! Murphy sign
Blumberg sign
McBurney sign7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The Murphy sign is an indicator of gallbladder
disease. The client is asked to inhale while the examiner’s
fingers are hooked under the liver border, at the bottom of
the rib cage. Inspiration causes the gallbladder to descend
onto the fingers, producing pain if the gallbladder is
inflamed. The Homan sign is pain in the calf area on sharp
dorsiflexion of the client’s foot. The Blumberg sign is the
presence of rebound tenderness on palpation of the
abdomen. Rebound tenderness is a reliable sign of
peritoneal irritation. The McBurney sign is a reaction of the
client indicating severe pain and extreme tenderness
when the McBurney point (midway between the umbilicus
and the anterior iliac crest in the right lower quadrant of
the abdomen) is palpated. Such a reaction indicates
appendicitis.
Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge regarding the
subject, the physical assessment findings in the presence
of cholecystitis, is needed to answer this question.
Visualizing the anatomic location of the gallbladder and
recalling the definition of each sign in the options will direct
you to the correct one. Review the findings noted in
cholecystitis and the signs noted in the options if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Gastrointestinal
Question 59 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection of a client with suspected
carpal tunnel syndrome plans to perform the Phalen test. The
nurse should ask the client to perform which activity?
Dorsiflex the foot
Plantarflex the foot7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees
for 60 seconds
Correct! Correct!
Hyperextend the fingers with the palmar surfaces of the hands
touching, holding the position for 60 seconds
Rationale: In the Phalen test, the nurse asks the client to
hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90
degrees. Dorsiflexing or plantarflexing the foot and
hyperextending the fingers are not associated with testing
for carpal tunnel syndrome. Acute flexion of the wrist for
60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the knowledge of the subject,
and visualize each option. Recalling that carpal tunnel
syndrome occurs in the wrist will assist you in eliminating
the options that address the foot and fingers. Review this
diagnostic test for carpal tunnel syndrome if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Musculoskeletal
Question 60 1 / 1 pts
A nurse reviewing a client’s health care record notes
documentation that the client has Heberden nodes of the distal
interphalangeal joints. Which disorder does the nurse determine
that the client has?
Scoliosis
Correct! Correct! Osteoarthritis
Rotator cuff lesions7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Carpal tunnel syndrome
Rationale: Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard,
nontender nodules of 2 to 3 mm or larger. These
osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal
interphalangeal joints are called Heberden nodes. In this
disorder, when these nodes occur on the proximal
interphalangeal joints they are called Bouchard nodes.
Heberden nodes are not associated with scoliosis, rotator
cuff lesions, or carpal tunnel syndrome.
Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the pathophysiologic
findings associated with each item in the options to assist
in answering correctly. Also, noting the strategic words
“interphalangeal joints” will direct you to the correct option.
Review the significance of Heberden nodes if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Musculoskeletal
Question 61 1 / 1 pts
A nurse in the emergency department is assisting with data
collection of a client. The presence of which condition would
cause the nurse to avoid testing range of motion (ROM) of the
cervical spine?
Headache
Correct! Correct! Neck trauma
Sinus infection
Muscle spasms7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: A nurse performing a musculoskeletal
assessment would not test ROM in a client who has
sustained neck trauma, which may have resulted in a
cervical fracture. If a cervical fracture is present, further
movement of the neck could result in spinal cord injury.
ROM testing does not need to be avoided if the client is
experiencing a headache, sinus infection, or muscle
spasms.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
note the strategic word “avoid” in the query of the
question. This word indicates a negative event query and
the need to select the unsafe action. Noting the
relationship between the words “cervical spine” in the
question and “neck” will direct you the correct option.
Review the procedure for musculoskeletal assessment if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Adult Health/Musculoskeletal
Question 62 1 / 1 pts
A nurse reviewing the health care record of a client notes
documentation of grade 4 muscle strength. The nurse
understands that this indicates:
Full range of motion (ROM) with gravity
Correct! Correct! Full ROM against gravity with some resistance
Full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion)
Full ROM against gravity with full resistance7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Muscle strength is graded on a scale of 0 to 5.
A grade of 5 indicates normal strength and is described as
full ROM against gravity with full resistance. Grade 4
indicates good strength and full ROM against gravity with
some resistance. Grade 3 indicates fair strength and full
ROM with gravity. Grade 2 indicates poor strength and full
ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion). Grade 1
indicates trace strength and slight contraction. Grade 0
indicates zero strength and no contraction.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject,
grading scale for muscle strength, to assist with the
process of elimination. Recall that muscle strength is
graded from 0 to 5, with 5 indicating normal muscle
strength. This will direct you to the correct option. Review
the scale for grading muscle strength if you had difficulty
with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Musculoskeletal
Question 63 1 / 1 pts
A nurse performing a genital examination of a male client notes
that the skin of the penis and scrotum is wrinkled. On the basis of
this finding, the nurse takes which action?
Correct! Correct! Documents the normal finding
Checks for penile discharge, because this finding indicates
infection
Palpates for a mass in the scrotum, because wrinkling indicates
the presence of one7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Obtains additional subjective data from the client, focusing on the
scrotal abnormality
Rationale: The penile skin is normally wrinkled and
hairless, without lesions. The dorsal vein may also be
apparent on inspection of the penis. Scrotal skin also has
a wrinkled appearance (rugae). Asymmetry is normal, with
the left half of the scrotum usually lower than the right.
Wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum is a normal
finding; therefore the nurse would document the finding.
The other options are incorrect.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
focus on the data in the question. Recalling the normal
findings of the male genital examination will direct you to
the correct option. Review these normal findings of the
male genitalia if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 64 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is describing the procedure for testicular self-examination
(TSE) to a male client. Which statement should the nurse make
to the client?
“A good time to examine the testicles is just before you take a
shower.”
“If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify
the physician.”
Correct! Correct!7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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“The testicle is egg-shaped and movable. It feels firm and has a
lumpy consistency.”
“Perform a testicular exam at least every 2 months to detect early
signs of testicular cancer.”
Rationale: During a shower or bath is the best time to
examine the testes because warm temperatures make the
testes hang lower in the scrotum. The testes should feel
round and smooth, without lumps. Self-examination should
be performed monthly. The physician is to be notified
immediately if any abnormalities are found.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject, TSE,
to assist with the process of elimination. Eliminate the
option containing the words “before you take a shower.”
Next, recalling the words “every 2 months” will assist you
in eliminating this option. To select from the remaining
options, recall that lumps are an abnormal finding; this will
direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for
testicular self-examination if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 65 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is assisting the physician in performing transillumination
of a client's scrotum. The nurse prepares for this procedure in
which way?
Correct! Correct! Obtaining a flashlight and darkening the room
Instructing the client to drink three glasses of water7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Instructing the client to take several deep breaths and bear down
Telling the client that the procedure is very uncomfortable but that
the discomfort will only last for a few moments
Rationale: Transillumination of the testes is a painless
procedure that is performed when swelling or a lump is
noted on palpation. After the room is darkened, a strong
flashlight is shined from behind the scrotal contents.
Normal scrotal contents do not appear on
transillumination. Instructing the client to drink fluids or to
take deep breaths and bear down is not necessary.
Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word
“transillumination” in the question. Note the relationship
between this word and the word “flashlight” in the correct
option. Review this assessment technique for the testes, if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Planning
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 66 0 / 1 pts
A female client is seen in the clinic for a gynecological
examination. The nurse begins collecting subjective data. Which
topic does the nurse ask the client about first?
Y You Answered ou Answered Her sexual history
Correct Answer Correct Answer Her menstrual history
Her obstetrical history7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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The presence of vaginal drainage
Rationale: The nurse should begin collecting subjective
data by asking the client about her menstrual history
because this information is usually nonthreatening to the
client. Questions about sexual history, obstetrical history,
and the presence of vaginal discharge would be asked,
but this information may be perceived by the client as
more sensitive and the questions more threatening.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
note the strategic words “first.” Use therapeutic
communication techniques and guidelines for developing a
therapeutic relationship to answer correctly. Remember to
ask nonthreatening questions first. Review the procedure
for collecting subjective data during a gynecological
examination if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 67 1 / 1 pts
During a health assessment interview, the client tells the nurse
that she has some vaginal drainage. The client is concerned that
it may indicate a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which
statement should the nurse make to the client?
“When was your last gynecological checkup?”
“Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?”
“Don’t worry about the discharge. Some vaginal discharge is
normal.”7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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“I need some more information about the discharge. What color
is it?”
Correct! Correct!
Rationale: If the client says that she has had some vaginal
drainage, the nurse should obtain additional data about
the discharge. The nurse would ask about the character
and color of the discharge, when the discharge began, any
factors associated with the discharge, medications being
taken, and self-care behaviors. Normal discharge is
sparse, clear, or cloudy and is always nonirritating.
Unprotected sexual intercourse suggests that the
discharge is associated with a STI and would cause more
concern on the part of the client. Telling the client not to
worry is a nontherapeutic communication technique.
Asking about her last gynecological checkup may be an
appropriate question but is not related to the subject of the
question.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use therapeutic communication
techniques to eliminate the nontherapeutic option. Asking
the client about unprotected sexual intercourse will cause
additional concern on the part of the client, so eliminate
this option. To select from the remaining options, note the
relationship between the data in the question and the
correct option. Review the components of a gynecological
examination if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 68 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to assist the health care provider in
performing an internal gynecological examination of a client. In
which position does the nurse place the client for this
examination?7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Prone
Left side–lying
Sims
Correct! Correct! Lithotomy
Rationale: An internal gynecological examination is
performed with the client in the lithotomy position. In this
position, the client is supine, with the feet in stirrups, the
knees apart, and the buttocks at the end of the examining
table. The client is draped so that only the vulva is
exposed. In the prone position, the client would be lying on
her stomach. The Sims position, a left side–lying position,
is most often used in administering an enema.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options (the Sims
position is a side-lying position). To select from the
remaining options, recall that the prone position is a
stomach-lying position; this will direct you to the correct
option. Review the procedure for an internal gynecological
examination if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 69 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is providing instructions to a client who is scheduled to
undergo a Papanicolaou (Pap) test in 1 week. Which statement
does the nurse make to the client?
“If you are menstruating, use pads instead of a tampon.”7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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“Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled
examination.”
Correct! Correct!
“Get a douching kit from the pharmacy and douche 2 hours
before the examination.”
“If you are having a vaginal discharge, obtain a sample of the
discharge for inspection.”
Rationale: The Pap test is used to screen for cervical
cancer. It is not performed during menses or if a heavy
infectious discharge is present. The woman is instructed
not to douche, have intercourse, or insert anything into the
vagina in the 24 hours before the test. Telling the client to
use tampons, douche before the exam, or obtain a sample
of the discharge for inspection is incorrect.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
focus on the subject, the Pap test. Recalling that the
Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for cervical
cancer and that a cervical specimen is obtained will direct
you to the correct option. Review client teaching in
preparation for the Pap test if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 70 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is reviewing the health care record of a client who has
just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which
documented finding indicates an abnormality?7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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The cervix is pink.
The cervix is midline.
The cervix is about 1 inch in diameter.
Correct! Correct! Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.
Rationale: Normally the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1
inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual
cycle, secretions may be clear and thin or thick, opaque,
and stringy. Secretions should always be odorless and
nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are associated
with infection.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use data in the question to assist
with the process of elimination. Note the relationship
between the words “abnormality” in the query of the
question and “foul odor” in the correct option. Review the
normal findings on inspection of the cervix if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Analysis
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 71 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing a female client for a rectal examination. Into
which position does the nurse assist the client?
Supine
Standing
Lithotomy7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Correct! Correct! Left lateral
Rationale: A female client is placed in the left lateral
position for a rectal examination. If the examiner is
examining the genitalia as well as the rectum, the woman
is placed in the lithotomy position. A male client is placed
in the left lateral or standing position. It would be difficult to
perform a rectal examination on a client in the supine
position.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
focus on the subject, a rectal examination of a female
client. Recalling that the left lateral position is used to
administer an enema will assist in directing you to the
correct option. Review the procedure for performing a
rectal examination of a female client if you had difficulty
with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 72 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection is inspecting the client’s
eyelids for ptosis. The nurse checks the client for which
abnormality?
Correct! Correct! Drooping
Pupil dilation
Pupil constriction
Deviation of ocular movements7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Ptosis, a drooping of the eyelids, can occur as
a result of disorders such as myasthenia gravis,
dysfunction of cranial nerve III, and Bell palsy. Pupil
dilation and constriction are checked with the use of a
flashlight. Ocular movements are checked by leading the
client’s eyes through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject of the question,
inspection of the client’s eyelids. This will direct you to the
correct option. Also note that the incorrect options involve
internal eye structures. Review the description of ptosis if
you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 73 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection of an adult client asks the
client to identify various odors. In this technique, which cranial
nerve is the nurse assessing?
Optic
Abducens
Correct! Correct! Olfactory
Hypoglossal7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The olfactory nerve is tested by determining the
sense of smell in clients who report loss of smell, those
with head trauma, those with abnormal mental status, and
those in whom the presence of an intracranial lesion is
suspected. The optic nerve is assessed by testing visual
acuity and visual fields. The abducens nerve is usually
assessed with the oculomotor and trochlear nerves;
testing involves checking the pupils for size, regularity,
equality, direct and consensual light reaction, and
accommodation and testing extraocular movements
through the cardinal positions of gaze. The hypoglossal
nerve is assessed through inspection of the tongue.
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the function of the
various cranial nerves is needed to answer this question.
Use data in the question to assist with selection of the
correct option. Recalling that the olfactory nerve relates to
the sense of smell will direct you to the correct option.
Review the function of the olfactory nerve if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 74 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to assess the
optic nerve. The nurse performs this examination by using which
technique?
Correct! Correct! Assessing visual acuity
Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis
Assessing pupil constriction
Assessing ocular movements7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The optic nerve is assessed through the testing
of visual acuity and visual fields by means of
confrontation. Ptosis, a drooping of the eyelid, can be
assessed by means of inspection of the eyelids. Testing of
the abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves, which are
usually assessed together, involves checking the pupils for
size, regularity, equality, direct and consensual light
reaction, and accommodation and assessing extraocular
movements through the cardinal positions of gaze.
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the subject,
the function of the various cranial nerves, is needed to
answer this question. Recalling that the optic nerve is
related to visual acuity will direct you to the correct option.
Review the function of the optic nerve if you had difficulty
with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 75 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the function of the
oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves. Which parameter
does the nurse check to determine the function of these nerves?
Tongue symmetry
Correct! Correct! Eye movements
Facial symmetry
Corneal reflex7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Testing of the oculomotor, trochlear, and
abducens nerves, which are usually assessed together,
involves checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality,
direct and consensual light reaction, and accommodation,
as well as testing of extraocular movements through the
cardinal positions of gaze. Inspection of the tongue for
symmetry reveals the function of cranial nerve XII
(hypoglossal nerve). Assessment of facial symmetry
reveals the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The
corneal reflex reflects the function of the sensory afferent
in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and the motor efferent
in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the subject,
the function of the various cranial nerves, is needed to
answer this question. Recalling that the oculomotor,
trochlear, and abducens nerves are related to pupil
function and eye movements will direct you to the correct
option. Review the functions of the cranial nerves if you
had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 76 1 / 1 pts
While assisting with data collection, the nurse asks the client to
close the jaws tightly, after which the nurse tries to open the
closed jaws. In this technique, the nurse is assessing the motor
function of which nerve?
Trochlear nerve
Abducens nerve
Correct! Correct! Trigeminal nerve
Oculomotor nerve7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: To test the motor function of cranial nerve V
(trigeminal nerve), the nurse assesses the muscles of
mastication by palpating the temporal and masseter
muscles as the client clenches the teeth. The nurse tries
to separate the jaws by pushing down on the client’s chin.
Normally the nurse cannot separate the jaws. Testing of
the trochlear, abducens, and oculomotor nerves, which are
usually assessed together, involves checking the pupils for
size, regularity, equality, direct and consensual light
reaction, and accommodation and assessing extraocular
movements through the cardinal positions of gaze.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
focus on the data in the question. Recalling that the
trochlear, abducens, and oculomotor nerves are usually
assessed together will assist you in eliminating these
options. Review the techniques for assessing the
trigeminal nerve if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 77 1 / 1 pts
While assisting with data collection regarding the neurological
system, the nurse asks the client to puff out both cheeks. Which
cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
Vagus
Correct! Correct! Facial
Abducens
Oculomotor7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Assessment of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve)
involves noting mobility and symmetry as the client smiles,
frowns, closes the eyes tightly (against the nurse’s attempt
to open them), lifts the eyebrows, shows the teeth, and
puffs out the cheeks. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal
nerve) and cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) are tested
together. Testing the motor function of these nerves entails
depressing the client’s tongue with a tongue blade and
noting pharyngeal movement as the client says “ah” and
touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade
and noting the gag reflex. Testing of the abducens,
oculomotor, and trochlear nerves, which are usually
assessed together, involves checking the pupils for size,
regularity, equality, direct and consensual light reaction,
and accommodation and testing extraocular movements
through the cardinal positions of gaze.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Recalling that the abducens and the oculomotor nerves
are tested together will assist you in eliminating these
options. To select from the remaining options, focus on the
data in the question; this will direct you to the correct
option. Review the technique for assessing the facial
nerve if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 78 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to assess the acoustic nerve during a
neurological examination. To assess this nerve, the nurse uses
which technique?
Correct! Correct! Uses a tuning fork
Asks the client to puff out the cheeks
Tests taste perception on the client’s tongue7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Checks the client’s ability to clench the teeth
Rationale: Testing of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve)
entails checking hearing acuity by assessing the client’s
ability to hear normal conversation, assessing the client’s
performance on the whispered voice test, and performing
the Weber and Rinne tuning fork tests. Asking the client to
puff out the cheeks is used to test the function of cranial
nerve VII (facial nerve). Testing of taste perception is used
to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX
(glossopharyngeal nerve). Checking the client’s ability to
clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of
cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve).
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Focusing on the strategic word “acoustic” in the question
will direct you to the correct option. “Acoustic” is
associated with hearing, and a tuning fork can be used to
determine the client’s hearing function. Review the
techniques for assessing the acoustic nerve if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 79 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client’s spinal
accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to
take to aid assessment of this nerve?
Smiling
Clenching the teeth
Correct! Correct! Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse’s resistance7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue
Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory
nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and
trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is
assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly
against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by
asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance.
These movements should feel equally strong on the two
sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function
of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client’s ability to
clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of
cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client’s taste
perception is used to assess the sensory function of
cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve).
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the subject,
the function of the various cranial nerves, is needed to
answer this question. Recalling that the spinal accessory
nerve is related to the size and strength of the
sternomastoid and trapezius muscles will direct you to the
correct option. Review the function of the spinal accessory
nerve if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 80 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear
portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action
does the nurse take to test this nerve?
Asking the client to raise his or her eyebrows and looking for
symmetry7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Asking the client to clench the teeth, then palpating the masseter
muscles just above the mandibular angle
Asking the client to close the eyes and then identify light and
sharp touch with a cotton ball and a pin on both sides of the face
Asking the client to close his or her eyes and then indicate when
a ticking watch is heard as the nurse brings the watch closer to
the client’s ear
Correct! Correct!
Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic
nerve, the nurse has the client close the eyes and indicate
when a ticking watch or rustling of the examiner’s
fingertips is heard as the stimulus is brought closer to the
ear. To test the motor component of the trigeminal nerve,
the nurse asks the client to clench the teeth and palpates
the masseter muscles just above the mandibular angle. To
test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve
(cranial nerve V), the nurse has the client identify light and
sharp touch on both sides of the face. Asking the client to
raise the eyebrows and watching for symmetry is one
method of testing the function of the facial nerve (cranial
nerve VII).
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Noting the strategic word “acoustic” in the question and
recalling that this nerve is related to hearing will direct you
to the correct option. Review the procedure for testing the
acoustic nerve if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 81 1 / 1 pts7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client’s
health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test
caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse,
on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?
Scoliosis
Bone deformity
Heberden nodules
Correct! Correct! Carpal tunnel syndrome
Rationale: The Phalen test is performed to check for the
presence of carpal tunnel syndrome. The client is asked to
hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90
degrees. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds
produces no symptoms in the normal hand. The Phalen
test reproduces the numbness and burning experienced
by a client with carpal tunnel syndrome. This test does not
reveal the presence of scoliosis, bone deformity, or
Heberden nodules, which occur in osteoarthritis.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Use
data in the question, “numbness and burning,” which
indicate a nerve disorder. Eliminate the comparable or
alike options that relate to disorders of the bones or joints.
Review the significance of the Phalen test if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Neurological
Question 82 1 / 1 pts7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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A nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the
Tinel sign. Which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign?
Testing the strength of each muscle joint
Correct! Correct! Percussing at the location of the median nerve
Checking for repetitive movements in the joints
Asking the client to hold the hands back to back while flexing the
wrist 90 degrees
Rationale: The Tinel sign is elicited with direct percussion
in the location of the median nerve at the wrist. The test
produces no symptoms in the normal hand. In the
presence of carpal tunnel syndrome, percussion of the
median nerve produces burning and tingling along its
distribution (Tinel sign). Asking the client to hold the hands
back to back while flexing the wrist 90 degrees is the
Phalen test, another test for the presence of carpal tunnel
syndrome. Testing the strength of each joint and checking
for repetitive movements in the joints involve the
assessment of muscle strength and range of motion.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options that address
muscle strength and range of motion. To select from the
remaining options, it is necessary to distinguish between
the Phalen test and the Tinel sign. Review the tests used
to identify carpal tunnel syndrome if you had difficulty with
this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Neurological
Question 83 1 / 1 pts7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to auscultate
for bowel sounds. The nurse should use which technique?
Correct! Correct! Begin in the right lower quadrant.
Use the bell end of the stethoscope.
Hold the stethoscope firmly and deeply against the skin.
Listen for at least 1 minute before deciding that bowel sounds are
absent.
Rationale: To auscultate for bowel sounds, the nurse uses
the diaphragm endpiece, because bowel sounds are
relatively high pitched. The stethoscope is held lightly
against the skin, because pushing too hard can stimulate
more bowel sounds. The nurse begins in the right lower
quadrant of the abdomen at the ileocecal valve, because
bowel sounds are always present there normally. The
nurse should listen for 5 minutes before deciding that
bowel sounds are absent.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject,
auscultating bowel sounds, to assist with the process of
elimination. Eliminate the option containing the words “bell
end.” Next, eliminate the option that uses the word
“deeply.” To select from the remaining options, visualizing
this procedure will direct you to the correct option. Review
the procedure for auscultating bowel sounds if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 84 1 / 1 pts7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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A nurse preparing to assisting with data collection of the
abdomen asks the client to void and then assists the client into a
supine position. Which primary finding does the nurse expect to
note on percussing all four quadrants of the abdominal cavity?
Dullness
Correct! Correct! Tympany
Borborygmus
Hyperresonance
Rationale: The nurse expects to primarily note tympany
when percussing the abdomen. Tympany should
predominate because air in the intestines rises to the
surface when the client is supine. Dullness occurs over a
distended bladder, adipose tissue, fluid, or a mass.
Borborygmus (the term used to describe hyperperistalsis)
may be noted on auscultation, not percussion.
Hyperresonance is present with gaseous distention.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject,
percussion of the abdomen, to assist you with the process
of elimination. The fact that borborygmus would be noted
on auscultation will assist you in eliminating this option. To
select from the remaining options, recall that tympanic
sounds are the normal sounds heard with percussion of
the abdomen. Eliminate the incorrect comparable or alike
options that mention a sound other than normal tympanic
sounds, which will direct you to the correct option. Review
the expected findings on percussion of the abdomen if you
had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Question 85 1 / 1 pts
On assessing a client’s skin, the nurse notes the presence of
several large red-blue and purple areas on the client’s body that
do not blanch when pressure is applied. The nurse documents
this finding using which term?
Psoriasis
Anasarca
Petechiae
Correct! Correct! Ecchymosis7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Ecchymosis refers to a large patch of capillary
bleeding into the tissues (bruise). The color of such an
area changes from red-blue or purple to green, yellow, and
brown before the area disappears. Pressure on the area
will not cause it to blanch. Psoriasis is noted as scaly
erythematous patches with silvery scales on top that
usually occur on the scalp, the outsides of elbows and
knees, the low back, and the anogenital area. Bilateral
edema or edema that is generalized over the entire body
is known as anasarca. This finding is indicative of a central
problem such as congestive heart failure or kidney failure.
Petechiae are tiny purple or red spots that appear on the
skin as a result of tiny hemorrhages within the dermal and
subdermal areas.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Noting the data in the question the words “red-blue and
purple” in the question will assist in directing you to the
correct option. Also, recalling that ecchymosis refers to a
bruise will direct you to the correct option. Review the
description of ecchymosis if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Content Area: Adult Health/Integumentary
Question 86 0 / 1 pts
A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a
confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test
measures which aspect of vision?
Y You Answered ou Answered Near vision
Color vision
Distant vision7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Correct Answer Correct Answer Peripheral vision
Rationale: The confrontation test is a gross measure of
peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision
with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is
normal. The nurse positions himself or herself at eye level
with the client, about 2 feet away, then directs the client to
cover one eye with an opaque card and look straight at the
nurse with the other eye. The nurse covers the eye
opposite the client’s covered one. The nurse then holds a
pencil or flicking finger as the target, midline between the
nurse and the client, and slowly advances it from the
periphery in several directions. The nurse asks the client
to say “now” as the target is first seen. This should occur
just as the nurse sees the object. Near vision is tested with
a handheld vision screener that contains various sizes of
print. Color vision is tested with the use of the Ishihara
test, which comprises a series of cards bearing a pattern
of dots printed against a background of many colored
dots. Distant vision is tested with the use of a Snellen
chart.
Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge regarding the
subject, the purpose of the confrontation test, is needed to
answer this question. Remember that the confrontation
test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. Review the
visual confrontation test if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 87 0 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection plans to perform the
Romberg test. After describing the test to the client, the nurse
tells the client that it will help reveal which disorder?7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Loss of hearing acuity
Correct Answer Correct Answer A problem with balance
A problem with distant hearing
A problem discriminating high-pitched and low-pitched sounds
Y You Answered ou Answered
Rationale: The Romberg test, a balance test, is used to
assess cerebellar function. The client stands with his or
her feet together and arms at the side. Once he or she is
in a stable position, the client is asked to close the eyes
and hold the position for about 20 seconds. Normally the
client can maintain posture and balance, although slight
swaying may occur. Hearing acuity, including distant
hearing and the ability to discriminate high- and lowpitched sounds, is assessed with the use of the voice and
tuning-fork tests.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination.
Eliminate the comparable or alike options that refer to
hearing. Review the purpose of the Romberg test if you
had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 88 1 / 1 pts
A nurse assisting with data collection plans to assess tactile
(vocal) fremitus. The nurse performs this by using which
technique?
Palpating for symmetric chest expansion7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx
Auscultating the breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields
Palpating the thorax, comparing vibrations from side to side as
the client repeats the word "ninety-nine"
Correct! Correct!
Rationale: Palpation over the lung is used to assess tactile
(vocal) fremitus. The nurse begins by palpating over the
lung apices in the supraclavicular areas. The nurse
compares vibrations from side to side as the client repeats
the word “ninety-nine.” To palpate for symmetric chest
expansion, the nurse places the hands on the
anterolateral wall, with the thumbs along the costal
margins and pointing toward the xiphoid process. The
client is asked to take a deep breath; as he or she does
so, the nurse watches his or her thumbs move apart and
watches for symmetry. Auscultation of breath sounds over
the trachea and larynx is used to assess bronchial breath
sounds. Auscultation of breath sounds over the peripheral
lung fields is used to assess vesicular breath sounds.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the data in the question to
assist with the process of elimination. Note the relationship
between the words “tactile (vocal) fremitus” in the question
and “vibrations” in the correct option. Review this
respiratory assessment technique if you had difficulty with
this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 89 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to listen to a client’s breath sounds. The
nurse should use which technique?7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Ask the client to lie down.
Listen to the right lung, then the left lung.
Ask the client to take shallow rapid breaths through the mouth.
Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope, holding it firmly against
the client’s chest.
Correct! Correct!
Rationale: The nurse asks the client to sit and lean
forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across
the lap. The client is asked to breathe through the mouth a
little more deeply than usual but is told to stop if he or she
begins to feel dizzy. The nurse uses the flat diaphragm
endpiece of the stethoscope, holding it firmly on the chest
wall, and listens for at least one full respiration in each
location, moving from side to side to compare sounds.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of the subject,
breath sound auscultation, to assist with the process of
elimination. The fact that it would be difficult to listen to
breath sounds if the client were lying down will assist you
in eliminating this option. Next eliminate the option
containing the word “rapid.” To select from the remaining
options, visualize the procedure and recall that side-toside comparison is important in the assessment of breath
sounds. Review the procedure for breath sound
auscultation if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 90 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is preparing to auscultate a client’s breath sounds. To
assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse places the7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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stethoscope over which area?
Major bronchi
The xiphoid process
The trachea and larynx
Correct! Correct! The peripheral lung fields
Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds are heard over the
peripheral lung fields, where air flows through the smaller
bronchioles and alveoli. Bronchovesicular breath sounds
are heard over the major bronchi. Bronchial (tracheal)
breath sounds are heard over the trachea and larynx.
Breath sounds are not heard over the xiphoid process.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, assessing
vesicular breath sounds. Recalling the location of these
types of breath sounds and remembering that they are
heard over the peripheral lung fields will direct you to the
correct option. Review the characteristics and locations of
various breath sounds if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 91 0 / 1 pts
A nurse reviewing a client’s record notes documentation that the
client has melena. How does the nurse detect the presence of
melena?
By checking the client’s urine for blood7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Correct Answer Correct Answer By checking the client’s stool for blood
By checking the client’s urine for a decrease in output
Y You Answered ou Answered By checking the client’s bowel movements for diarrhea
Rationale: “Melena” is the term used to describe abnormal
black tarry stool that has a distinctive odor and contains
digested blood. It usually results from bleeding in the
upper gastrointestinal tract and is often a sign of peptic
ulcer disease or small bowel disease. Blood in the client’s
urine, decreased urine output, and diarrhea are not
associated with the assessment for melena.
Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge regarding the
subject, the description of melena, will assist you in
answering the question. Remember that melena indicates
blood in the stool. Review the term “melena” if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Adult Health/Gastrointestinal
Question 92 1 / 1 pts
A nurse suspects that a client has a distended bladder. On
percussing the client’s bladder, which finding does the nurse
expect to note if the bladder is full?
Correct! Correct! Dull sounds
Hyperresonance sounds
Hypoactive bowel sounds7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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An absence of bowel sounds
Rationale: Normally a bladder is not percussible until it
contains 150 mL of urine. If the bladder is full, dullness is
heard over the symphysis pubis. Hyperresonance is
present with gaseous distention of the abdomen. Bowel
sounds are auscultated, not percussed.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and
note the strategic word “percussing” in the question. This
will assist you in eliminating the options related to bowel
sounds because bowel sounds are auscultated, not
percussed. To select from the remaining options, focus on
the subject, a distended bladder, which will direct you to
the correct option. Review the normal and abnormal
assessment findings on percussion of the abdomen if you
had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 93 1 / 1 pts
A 35-year-old female client asks the clinic nurse when she should
begin to have yearly mammograms. What does the nurse tell the
client?
Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 25.
Correct! Correct! Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
Yearly mammograms are not necessary unless there is a family
history of breast cancer.7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 20 and
continuing until menopause begins.
Rationale: The American Cancer Society recommends
yearly mammograms starting at age 40 and continuing for
as long as a woman is in good health. Clinical breast
examination should be done about every 3 years for
women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women
age 40 and older. Women should know how their breasts
normally look and feel and report any breast change
promptly to the health care provider. Breast selfexamination should be done monthly starting when a
woman is in her 20s. The American Cancer Society also
recommends that some women, because of their family
history, a genetic tendency, or certain other factors, be
screened with magnetic resonance imaging in addition to
mammograms.
Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge regarding the
subject, American Cancer Society recommendations for
the early detection of breast cancer, is needed to answer
this question. Using data in the question and focusing on
the client’s age may assist in directing you to the correct
option. Remember that the according to the American
Cancer Society, yearly mammograms are recommended
starting at age 40 and continuing for as long as a woman
is in good health. Review the American Cancer Society
recommendations if you had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning
Content Area: Adult Health/Oncology
Question 94 1 / 1 pts
A nurse teaches a client about healthy dietary measures and
explains the MyPlate food plan. The nurse determines that the
client understands the information if the client says how many of
his grains should be whole grains?7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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One-quarter
One-third
Correct! Correct! One-half
Two-thirds
Rationale: According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half
of grains eaten daily should be whole grains. Although it is
acceptable to make more than half of your grains whole
grains, MyPlate does not require it.
Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge regarding the
subject, MyPlate, is needed to answer this question.
Remember that according to the MyPlate food plan, half of
grains eaten daily should be whole grains. Review the
MyPlate nutritional guide if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Evaluating
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning
Content Area: Nutrition
Question 95 1 / 1 pts
A 16-year-old girl visits the women’s health clinic to obtain
information about birth control because she is sexually active and
wants to avoid pregnancy. The nurse should first take which
action when interviewing the client?
Assess the client’s knowledge of available birth control methods.
Correct! Correct!
Inform the client that birth control methods cannot be discussed
unless the client’s boyfriend is present.7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Tell the client that for her age and lifestyle, birth control pills
would be the easiest method of contraception.
Give the client written material about various birth control
methods and ask her to read them and to call if she has any
questions.
Rationale: Learning occurs more readily when new
information complements existing knowledge. Therefore it
is important for the nurse to assess the client’s level of
knowledge of the subject matter. Although the use of
written material assists in the learning process, this would
not be the first nursing intervention. Telling the client that
because of her age and lifestyle birth control pills would be
the easiest method of contraception provides advice from
the nurse’s perspective and does not allow the client the
opportunity to make her own decision. Telling the client
that birth control methods cannot be discussed unless the
client’s boyfriend is present is incorrect and
nontherapeutic.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use teaching and learning principles
and the steps of the nursing process to answer the
question. This will direct you to the correct option and the
only option that addresses assessment. Review teaching
and learning principles if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning
Content Area: Reproductive
Question 96 1 / 1 pts
A mother brings her 18-month-old child to the clinic to receive the
next scheduled vaccine. The child has previously received the
following vaccines: three doses of the hepatitis B vaccine (at birth
and 1 and 6 months of age); three doses of the7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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diphtheria/tetanus/acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine (at 2, 4, and
6 months of age); four doses of Haemophilus influenzae type b
(Hib) conjugate vaccine (at 2, 4, 6, and 12 months of age); three
doses of inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) (at 2, 4, and 6
months of age); one dose of measles/mumps/rubella vaccine
(MMR) (at 12 months of age); varicella zoster vaccine at 12
months of age; and four doses of pneumococcal vaccine (at 2, 4,
6, and 12 months of age). After reviewing the child’s
immunization record, which scheduled vaccine does the nurse
prepare to administer?
Hib
IPV
MMR
Correct! Correct! DTaP7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of
age; between 15 and 18 months of age; and between 4
and 6 years of age. Because the child has received only
three doses of this vaccine, the DTaP should be
administered. Hepatitis B vaccine is administered at birth
and at 1 and 6 months of age. Hib is administered at 2, 4,
and 6 months of age and between 12 and 15 months. IPV
is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between
4 and 6 years of age. MMR is administered between 12
and 15 months of age and again between 4 and 6 years of
age. Varicella zoster vaccine is administered between 12
and 15 months of age. Pneumococcal vaccine is
administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and at 12 to 15
months of age.
Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge regarding the
subject, the recommended immunization schedule, is
needed to answer this question. Remember that DTaP is
administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 15
and 18 months of age. Review the recommended
immunization schedule if you had difficulty with this
question.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Planning
Content Area: Child Health—Infectious Diseases
Question 97 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is supervising a student in preparing the physical
environment for an interview with a client. Which action by the
student is correct?
Correct! Correct! Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level
Placing a chair for the client across from the nurse’s desk
Providing seating for the client so that the client faces a strong
light7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye
level
Rationale: When preparing the physical environment for
an interview with a client, the nurse sets the room
temperature at a comfortable level. The nurse also
provides privacy and sufficient lighting and removes
distracting objects or equipment and noise from the
environment. The distance between the client and the
nurse should be 4 to 5 feet (twice arm’s length). The nurse
arranges the seating so that client and nurse are at eye
level. Barriers (e.g., facing a client across a desk or table)
are avoided.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the physical
environment for an interview. Read each option carefully
to assist in directing you to the correct option. Review the
procedure for performing an interview with a client if you
had difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Evaluating
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 98 1 / 1 pts
A nurse is gathering supplies to perform a physical assessment
of a client. Which necessary item does the nurse select to7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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perform the Weber test?
1 2 3 4
Correct! Correct!7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: Tuning fork tests measure hearing by way of air
conduction or by bone conduction, in which sound vibrates
through the cranial bones to the inner ear. The Weber test
is a tuning fork test that is performed when the client
reports hearing better with one ear than with the other. In
the Weber test, a vibrating tuning fork is placed in the
midline of the client’s skull and the client is asked whether
the tone sounds the same in both ears or better in one.
The client should hear the tone by bone conduction
through the skull, and it should sound equally loud in both
ears. The otoscope, reflex hammer, and stethoscope may
be used when performing the physical examination but are
not needed to perform the Weber test.
Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the subject, Weber
testing, is necessary to answer this question. Recalling
that the Weber test is a test that assesses hearing and
requires the use of a tuning fork will assist you in
answering the question. Review the Weber test if you had
difficulty with this question.
Cognitive Ability: Understanding
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection
Content Area: Health Assessment/Physical Exam
Question 99 1 / 1 pts
The nurse, assisting with data collection of the abdomen,
inspects the client’s abdomen. Which assessment technique
does the nurse perform next?
Percussion
Correct! Correct! Auscultation
Light palpation
Deep palpation7/19/2021 Module 2 Exam: HESI VN TXGRP 1912COHORT(VNE 39)
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Rationale: The assessment techniques used for a physical
examination are inspection, palpation, percussion, and
auscultation. These techniques are performed one at a
time and normally in this order. The exception to this order
is an abdominal examination: During the abdominal
examination, auscultation is performed after inspection
and before palpation and percussion, because palpation
and percussion can increase peristalsis, which would yield
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