ITM 301: Introduction to IT Infrastructure. Common Testable | TEST BANK

TEST BANK for ITM 301: Introduction to IT Infrastructure. Common Testable Q&A. / 1. Servers that have a NOS installed require less memory, processing power, and storage capacity than clients because servers are cal ...

TEST BANK for ITM 301: Introduction to IT Infrastructure. Common Testable Q&A. / 1. Servers that have a NOS installed require less memory, processing power, and storage capacity than clients because servers are called on to handle only light processing loads and requests from multiple clients. 1 Network Models / 1.1 - Distinguish between client-server and peer-to-peer networks 2. The fundamental difference between a switch and a router is that a switch belongs only to its local network and a router belongs to two or more local networks. a. b. 1 / 1.3 - Describe various networking hardware devices and the most common physical topologies 1/27/2018 1:06 PM 3. After a problem and its symptoms have been identified, a theory regarding a probable cause should be established. a. b. 1 Troubleshooting Network Problems / 1.6 - Describe the seven-step troubleshooting model for solving a networking problem 4. Static electricity is an electrical charge in motion. a. b. 1 Safety Procedures and Policies / 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 5. The protocol data unit for the Physical layer of the OSI model is payload, or data. a. b. 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model / 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 6. The term firmware refers to programs embedded into hardware devices. This software only changes when a firmware upgrade is performed. a. b. 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model / 1.3 - Describe various networking hardware devices and the most common physical topologies 7. The Data Link layer attaches a trailer to the end of a packet, and does not include a header. a. b. 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model / 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 8. The Transport layer header addresses a receiving application by a number called a MAC address. a. b. 1 Difficult The Seven-Layer OSI Model / 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 9. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is considered to be a connectionless, or best-effort delivery protocol. a. b. 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model / 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 10. In general, an API (application programming interface) call is the method an application uses when it makes a request of the OS. a. b. 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model / 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model Multiple Choice 11. HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 4 b. Layer 5 c. Layer 6 d. Layer 7 d 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 12. What layer of the OSI model describes how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application? a. Application Layer b. Presentation Layer c. Session Layer d. Transport Layer c 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 13. The Data Link Layer utilizes what name for its protocol data unit (PDU)? a. packet b. data c. bit d. frame d 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 14. What statement accurately reflects what occurs when a message is too large to transport on a network? a. The message is discarded and must be sent again. b. The message is sent anyway, and is received by the destination as garbage data. c. The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP). d. An ICMP error is generated, and the application must reformat the data for transmission. c 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 15. What is a defining characteristic of a bus topology based network? a. Devices are connected to two adjacent devices, and communication priority is granted by a token. b. Devices are connected directly to a centralized networking device, known as a network switch. c. Devices are daisy-chained together in a single line. d. Devices are directly attached to a network router, which forwards data to intended destinations. c 1 Multiple Choice 1.3 - Describe various networking hardware devices and the most common physical topologies 16. If your network consists of all connected devices connecting to one central device, such as a switch, what type of topology is being used? a. bus topology b. star topology c. star bus topology d. mesh topology b 1 Multiple Choice 1.3 - Describe various networking hardware devices and the most common physical topologies 17. The proper handling procedures for substances such as chemical solvents is typically outlined in which of the following options? a. Toxic Chemical Safety Procedure (TCSP) b. Dangerous and Hazardous Waste Disposal Sheet (DHWDS) c. Environmental Chemical Hazard Sheet (ECHS) d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) d 1 Safety Procedures and Policies Multiple Choice 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 18. A policy in which all exit doors for a building stay unlocked during a fire is an example of what type of policy? a. fail-open b. fail-close c. fail-tolerant d. fail-oriented a 1 Safety Procedures and Policies Multiple Choice 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 19. An open electrical circuit as a result of a failed circuit breaker is considered to be what type of failure system? a. fail-open b. fail-close c. fail-tolerant d. fail-dynamic b 1 Difficult Safety Procedures and Policies Multiple Choice 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 20. At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate? a. Layer 2 b. Layer 3 c. Layer 4 d. Layer 5 a 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 21. Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks? a. They lack scalability. b. They are not necessarily secure. c. They are impractical for connecting large numbers of computers. d. They centralize user account logins. d 1 Network Models Multiple Choice 1.1 - Distinguish between client-server and peer-to-peer networks 22. At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate? a. Application b. Session c. Transport d. Network d 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 23. In considering the responsibilities of each layer of the OSI model, what statement accurately reflects those of the Presentation layer? a. The Presentation layer describes the interface between two applications, each on separate computers. b. The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read. c. The Presentation layer is responsible for describing how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application. d. The Presentation layer is responsible for transporting Application layer payloads from one application to another. b 1 Difficult The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 24. Which of the following is an example of encapsulation? a. The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model. b. The subtraction of a header from data inherited from the layer below in the OSI model. c. The modification of headers from a higher layer in the OSI model. d. The addition of a trailer to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model. a 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 25. What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server? a. POP3 b. IMAP4 c. SMTP d. HTTPS c 1 Client-Server Applications Multiple Choice 1.2 - Identify types of applications and protocols used on a network 26. What is the most popular web server application? a. Microsoft Internet Information Services b. NGINX c. Lighttpd d. Apache d 1 Client-Server Applications Multiple Choice 1.2 - Identify types of applications and protocols used on a network 27. The TCP and UDP protocols both exist at what layer of the OSI model? a. Application b. Presentation c. Transport d. Network c 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 28. The frame header at the Data Link layer includes hardware addresses of the source and destination NICs. What is another name for this address? a. MAC (Media Access Control) address b. DAC (Data Access Control) address c. DAC (Digital Access Control) address d. PAC (Packet Access Control) address a 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 29. In the TCP/IP model, what layer is considered so simple that it is ignored entirely? a. Application b. Network c. Physical d. Data Link c 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 30. What federal agency is charged with safety and health in the workplace? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Workplace Safety and Hazard Administration (WSHA) c. Office Safety and Standards Department (OSSD) d. Hazardous Materials and Safety Management (HMSM) a 1 Safety Procedures and Policies Multiple Choice 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 31. What is the minimal amount of voltage required to damage an electrical component? a. 5 volts b. 10 volts c. 100 volts d. 1500 volts b 1 Safety Procedures and Policies Multiple Choice 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 32. When dealing with static electricity, what kind of failure caused by static discharge shortens the life of a component, and can cause intermittent errors? a. catastrophic failure b. interrupting failure c. upset failure d. temporary failure c 1 Safety Procedures and Policies Multiple Choice 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 33. In the TCP/IP model, what layer combines the responsibilities of the Application, Presentation, and Session layers from the OSI model? a. Application b. Internet c. Transport d. Link a 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 34. What occurs if a network layer protocol is aware that a packet is larger than the maximum size for its network? a. The protocol will notify a network router capable of receiving the packet, and a new path will be used to the destination. b. The protocol will send an ICMP message to the destination, requesting a larger packet size be allowed. c. The packet will be dropped silently, requiring the communicating application try again. d. The packet will be divided into smaller packets using fragmentation. d 1 Difficult The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.2 - Identify types of applications and protocols used on a network 35. In a fire suppression system, what term is used to describe what is typically a foaming chemical, gas, or water that is sprayed everywhere to put out a fire? a. fire extinction agent b. fire suppression agent c. extinguishing medium d. eliminating factor b 1 Safety Procedures and Policies Multiple Choice 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 36. In the United States, who is able to activate the Emergency Alert System at the national level? a. Any U.S. state or territory b. The Federal Bureau of Investigation c. The President d. Local law enforcement c 1 Safety Procedures and Policies Multiple Choice 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 37. What is assigned to each node on a network, which is then used by the Network layer to uniquely identify the node? a. MAC address b. IP address c. port address d. autonomous system address b 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.2 - Identify types of applications and protocols used on a network 38. What Application layer protocol can be used to monitor and gather information about network traffic and can alert network administrators about adverse conditions that need attention? a. HTTP b. POP3 c. SNMP d. SMTP c 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Multiple Choice 1.2 - Identify types of applications and protocols used on a network 39. The Windows Remote Desktop application utilizes what protocol to provide secure, encrypted transmissions? a. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) b. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) c. Secure Shell (SSH) d. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) d 1 Client-Server Applications Multiple Choice 1.2 - Identify types of applications and protocols used on a network 40. In a domain, the process of allowing a user to sign on to the network from any computer on the network and get access to resources is managed by what service? a. Active Directory Federated Users (AD FU) b. Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) c. Automated Directory Network Services (AD NS) d. Windows Named Resource Services (WN RS) b 1 Network Models Multiple Choice 1.2 - Identify types of applications and protocols used on a network Subjective Short Answer 41. What are the differences between the POP3 and IMAP4 protocols? Using the POP3 (Post Office Protocol, version 3), email is downloaded to the client computer. When using IMAP4 however, the client application manages the email while it's stored on the server. 1 Client-Server Applications Subjective Short Answer 1.2 - Identify types of applications and protocols used on a network 42. What are some of the typical elements that might be present in a fire suppression system, and what do they do? A fire suppression system in a data center typically includes the following: * emergency alert system-These systems vary, but they typically generate loud noise and flashing lights. Some send text and voice message alerts to key personnel, and post alerts by email, network messages, and other means. * portable fire extinguishers-Note that electrical fires require a Class C fire extinguisher. * emergency power-off switch-Don't use a power-off switch unless you really need to; improper shutdowns are hard on computers and their data. * suppression agent-This can consist of a foaming chemical, gas, or water that sprays everywhere to put out the fire. 1 Difficult Safety Procedures and Policies Subjective Short Answer 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 43. What is the difference between a WAN, MAN, CAN, and a PAN? A group of LANs that spread over a wide geographical area is called a WAN (wide area network). A group of connected LANs in the same geographical area-for example, a handful of government offices surrounding a state capitol building-is known as a MAN (metropolitan area network) or CAN (campus area network). The smallest network is a PAN (personal area network), which is a network of personal devices, such as the network you use when you sync your smartphone and your computer. 1 Subjective Short Answer 1.3 - Describe various networking hardware devices and the most common physical topologies 44. What are some of the tasks for which a network operating system is responsible? A network operating system is typically responsible for the following: * Managing data and other resources for a number of clients * Ensuring that only authorized users access the network * Controlling which types of files a user can open and read * Restricting when and from where users can access the network * Dictating which rules computers will use to communicate * In some situations, supplying applications and data files to clients 1 Network Models Subjective Short Answer 1.1 - Distinguish between client-server and peer-to-peer networks 45. What is a remote application, and how can remote applications be implemented on Windows Server? A remote application is an application that is installed and executed on a server and is presented to a user working at a client computer. Windows Server 2008 and later versions include Remote Desktop Services to manage remote applications, and versions of Windows Server prior to 2008 provided Terminal Services. Both use RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) to present the remote application and its data to the client. 1 Client-Server Applications Subjective Short Answer 1.1 - Distinguish between client-server and peer-to-peer networks 46. Explain the differences between a physical topology and a logical topology. The term physical topology, or network topology, mostly applies to hardware and describes how computers, other devices, and cables fit together to form the physical network. The term logical topology has to do with software and describes how access to the network is controlled, including how users and programs initially gain access to the network and how specific resources, such as applications and databases, are shared on the network. 1 Network Models Subjective Short Answer 1.3 - Describe various networking hardware devices and the most common physical topologies 47. Describe how the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) differ from each other, and provide examples of where each might be used. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) makes a connection with the end host, checks whether the data is received, and resends it if it is not. TCP is, therefore, called a connection-oriented protocol. TCP is used by applications such as Web browsers and email. Guaranteed delivery takes longer and is used when it is important to know that the data reached its destination. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) does not guarantee delivery by first connecting and checking whether data is received; thus, UDP is called a connectionless protocol or best-effort protocol. UDP is used for broadcasting, such as streaming video or audio over the Web, where guaranteed delivery is not as important as fast transmission. UDP is also used to monitor network traffic. 1 Difficult The Seven-Layer OSI Model Subjective Short Answer 1.2 - Identify types of applications and protocols used on a network 48. How can you prevent damage to a component prior to touching it? Before touching a component, first ground yourself using one of these methods: *Wear an ESD strap around your wrist that clips onto the chassis or computer case, which eliminates any ESD between you and the chassis and its components. *If you don't have an ESD strap handy, be sure to at least touch the case before you touch any component inside the case. This is not as effective as wearing an ESD strap, but can reduce the risk of ESD. *To protect a sensitive component, always store it inside an antistatic bag when it's not in use. In addition to protecting against ESD, always shut down and unplug a computer before working inside it. 1 Safety Procedures and Policies Subjective Short Answer 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 49. What are some general OSHA guidelines to use when using power (electric) tools or other hand tools in the workplace? Some general OSHA guidelines for using power tools or other hand tools in the workplace are as follows: *Wear personal protective equipment (PPE) to protect yourself as you work. For example, wear eye protection where dust or fumes are generated by power tools. *Keep all tools in good condition and properly store tools not in use. Examine a tool for damage before you use it. *Use the right tool for the job and operate the tool according to the manufacturer's instructions and guidelines. Don't work with a tool unless you are trained and authorized to use it. *Watch out for trip hazards, so you and others don't stumble on a tool or cord. For example, keep power tool electrical extension cords out from underfoot, and don't leave hand tools lying around unattended. 1 Safety Procedures and Policies Subjective Short Answer 1.5 - Explain best practices for safety when working with networks and computers 50. Explain the two different categories of Application layer protocols, and then detail the PDU used at this layer. Application layer protocols are used by programs that fall into two categories: *Application programs that provide services to a user, such as a browser and Web server using the HTTP Application layer protocol *Utility programs that provide services to the system, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) programs that monitor and gather information about network traffic and can alert network administrators about adverse conditions that need attention. Data that is passed between applications or utility programs and the operating system is called a payload and includes control information. The two end-system computers that initiate sending and receiving data are called hosts. 1 The Seven-Layer OSI Model Subjective Short Answer 1.4 - Describe the seven layers of the OSI model 1. Each type of cable has a prescribed bend radius, which is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop a cable without impairing data transmission. a. b. 1 Components of Structured Cabling / 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 2. The TIA/EIA standard for wall jacks in a work area require that at least one outlet be provided for data and one for voice. a. b. 1 Components of Structured Cabling / 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 3. Cable that is coated with flame-resistant polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is acceptable for use in plenum areas. a. b. 1 Components of Structured Cabling / 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 4. The industry standard height for a rack in rack units is 42U. a. b. 1 Components of Structured Cabling / 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 5. A 66 block is more suitable for data connections than the older 110 block. a. b. 1 Components of Structured Cabling / 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 6. Fiber-optic cable comes in two types: single-mode fiber (SMF) or multimode fiber (MMF). a. b. 1 Components of Structured Cabling / 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 7. In a rack setup, a device called a KVM allows multiple consoles to connect to a single device on the rack. a. b. 1 Components of Structured Cabling / 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 8. F5 Networks set the standard for the diagram symbols used to represent routers, switches, firewalls, and other devices. a. b. 1 Network Documentation / 2.2 - Create and analyze network diagrams 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 9. A master service agreement (MSA) is a contract that defines the terms of future contracts between parties, such as payment terms or arbitration arrangements. a. b. 1 Network Documentation / 2.3 - Explain operating procedures, inventory management, labeling conventions, and business documents for a typical network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 10. The process of designing, implementing, and maintaining an entire network is called the system life cycle. a. b. 1 Network Documentation / 2.3 - Explain operating procedures, inventory management, labeling conventions, and business documents for a typical network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 11. When planning horizontal cabling, what is the maximum allowable distance that can be used? a. 100 feet b. 300 meters c. 1,000 feet d. 100 meters d 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 12. In general, how much can a twisted-pair's cable be bent before data transmission may be impeded? a. No more than two times the diameter of the cable. b. No more than four times the diameter of the cable. c. No more than ten times the diameter of the cable. d. Twisted pair cable has a near infinite bend radius. b 1 Difficult Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 13. What statement accurately describes what a cable bend radius determines? a. A cable bend radius is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data. b. A cable bend radius is the radius of the minimum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data. c. A cable bend radius determines the total number of bends that can exist in an overall cable before data is impaired. d. A cable bend radius defines the twist rate of the cable inside of the insulation. a 1 Difficult Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 14. In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting? a. at least 3 inches b. at least 3 feet c. at least 6 feet d. at least 12 feet b 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 15. What is NOT a TIA/EIA recognized cabling type that can be used for horizontal cabling? a. RG-6 Coaxial b. unshielded twisted pair (UTP) c. shielded twisted pair (STP) d. fiber-optic a 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 16. What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs? a. horizontal cross connect b. patch cable c. vertical cross connect d. diagonal cabling c 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 17. Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment? a. in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF) b. at the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) c. in the work area d. between the MDF and the IDF a 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 18. What component of enterprise level structured cabling serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building's backbone cabling? a. network interface device b. main distribution frame c. intermediate distribution frame d. entrance facility d 1 Difficult Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 19. During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced? a. No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed. b. No less than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed. c. Each pair should be stripped of insulation so that it doesn't get caught in the jack. d. Each pair should be twisted around another pair to reduce cross talk. a 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 20. What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch? a. A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software. b. A software patch is a major change to a software package that enhances the functionality and features of the software, while also correcting bugs and vulnerabilities. c. A software patch involves the process of reverting to a previous version of software after attempting to upgrade it. d. A software patch is a container for new software, and must be installed on relevant devices and incorporated with network resources. a 1 Change Management Multiple Choice 2.4 - Track the progress of changes made to a network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 21. What type of diagram is a graphical representation of a network's wired infrastructure? a. network diagram b. wiring schematic c. topology map d. system diagram b 1 Network Documentation Multiple Choice 2.2 - Create and analyze network diagrams 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 22. Which of the following is a document that is sent as a request to vendors to submit a proposal for a product or service that your company wants to purchase? a. memorandum of understanding b. statement of work c. request for quote d. request for proposal d 1 Network Documentation Multiple Choice 2.3 - Explain operating procedures, inventory management, labeling conventions, and business documents for a typical network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 23. What is the name of the GUI front end that is available for the Nmap utility? a. GUINmap b. Zenmap c. iMap d. VizMap b 1 Network Documentation Multiple Choice 2.2 - Create and analyze network diagrams 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 24. What kind of document serves as a legally binding contract or part of a contract that defines, in plain language and in measurable terms, the aspects of a service provided to a customer? a. statement of work b. memorandum of understanding c. service-level agreement d. master service agreement c 1 Network Documentation Multiple Choice 2.3 - Explain operating procedures, inventory management, labeling conventions, and business documents for a typical network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 25. In a voice over IP setup (VoIP), what kind of device converts signals from a campus's analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over a phone company's analog telephone lines? a. VoIP PBX b. VoIP MTA c. VoIP gateway d. VoIP translator c 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 26. A change coordinator functions as what type of manager? a. project manager b. inventory manager c. human resources manager d. time manager a 1 Change Management Multiple Choice 2.4 - Track the progress of changes made to a network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 27. What does a statement of work document do? a. It documents in detail the work that must be completed for a particular object, and includes specifics such as tasks, deliverables, standards, payment schedule, and work timeline. b. It documents the intentions of two or more parties to enter into a binding agreement, or contract, and is sometimes used between an informal handshake and the legally binding signatures on contracts. c. It is a legally binding contract or part of a contract that defines, in plain language and in measurable terms, the aspects of a service provided to a customer, such as the service provided by an ISP. d. It is a contract that defines the terms of future contracts between parties, such as payment terms or arbitration arrangements. a 1 Difficult Network Documentation Multiple Choice 2.3 - Explain operating procedures, inventory management, labeling conventions, and business documents for a typical network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 28. Your company is setting itself up to distribute software made by another company. What type of document should your company procure from the developing company? a. master service agreement b. master license agreement c. service-level agreement d. memorandum of understanding b 1 Network Documentation Multiple Choice 2.3 - Explain operating procedures, inventory management, labeling conventions, and business documents for a typical network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 29. When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network switch? a. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. b. An icon that resembles a brick wall. c. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front. d. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions. d 1 Network Documentation Multiple Choice 2.2 - Create and analyze network diagrams 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 30. When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network firewall? a. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. b. An icon that resembles a brick wall. c. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front. d. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions. b 1 Network Documentation Multiple Choice 2.2 - Create and analyze network diagrams 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 31. When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router? a. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. b. An icon that resembles a brick wall. c. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front. d. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions. a 1 Network Documentation Multiple Choice 2.2 - Create and analyze network diagrams 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 32. Why should you not leave more than 1 inch of exposed cable before a twisted-pair termination? a. Exposing more cable than necessary can cause corrosion of the copper wire. b. The exposure of the cable can cause transmission interference between wires. c. The cable will lose its conductive properties. d. The termination will fail over time due to oxidation. b 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 33. What does backbone cabling consist of? a. Short length cables with connectors at both ends. b. It is cabling that connects workstations to the closest data room and to switches housed in the room. c. The cables or wireless links that provide interconnection between the entrance facility and MDF, and between the MDF and IDFs. d. The shielded cables that are used for high data transmission rates between an organization and an ISP. c 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 34. Which of the following is NOT a best practice when performing cable management? a. A cable tester should be used to verify that each segment of cable is transmitting reliably. b. Cable should not be placed across a floor where they might be damaged by traffic. c. Cable ties should be pulled tightly to keep cables from moving around in a bundle. d. Grounding requirements should be followed when running cables. c 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 35. What type of documentation tool is a website that can be edited by users, allowing them to add files and photos and links between pages? a. wiki b. spreadsheet c. workgroup d. co-op a 1 Network Documentation Multiple Choice 2.4 - Track the progress of changes made to a network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 36. What statement regarding main distribution frame or main distribution facilities is accurate? a. The MDF and entrance facility are always in separate rooms. b. The MDF refers to the racks holding network equipment in an organization. c. The MDF provides intermediate connection between the IDF and end-user equipment on each floor. d. The MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN. d 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 37. Equipment data racks most commonly are a standard width of what measurement? a. 19 inches b. 20 inches c. 25 inches d. 30 inches a 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 38. What standard describes uniform, enterprise-wide cabling systems, regardless of who manufactures or sells the various parts used in the system? a. IEEE 802.3 b. TIA/EIA-568 c. ITU 922 d. ISO 9001 b 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 39. A dedicated telephone switch or virtual switching device that connects and manages calls within a private organization, and manages call connections that exit the network through a VoIP gateway, is known by what term? a. VoIP router b. VoIP PBX (private branch exchange) c. VoIP LEC (local exchange carrier) d. VoIP ATB (analog telephone branch) b 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 40. What type of tool would you utilize to terminate twisted pair wire on a 66 or 110 block? a. wire crimper tool b. block trimmer tool c. wire cinching tool d. punchdown tool d 1 Components of Structured Cabling Multiple Choice 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 41. What are the three different types of cabling recognized by TIA/EIA as acceptable for horizontal wiring? TIA/EIA recognizes three possible cabling types for horizontal wiring: UTP, STP, or fiber optic cable. UTP (unshielded twisted pair) cable is a type of copper-based cable that consists of one or more insulated twisted-wire pairs encased in a plastic sheath. STP (shielded twisted pair) cable is a type of copper-based cable containing twisted-wire pairs that are not only individually insulated, but also surrounded by a shielding made of a metallic substance such as foil. Fiber-optic cable is a form of cable that contains one or several glass or plastic fibers in its core and comes in two types: single-mode fiber (SMF) or multimode fiber (MMF). Copper-based cable transmits data via electric signals, and fiber-optic cable transmits data via pulsing light sent from a laser or light-emitting diode (LED). 1 Difficult Components of Structured Cabling Subjective Short Answer 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 42. What steps should be taken to manage documentation at a cabling plant? Follow these guidelines to manage documentation at your cabling plant: *Keep your cable plant documentation in a centrally accessible location. Make sure it includes locations, installation dates, lengths, and grades of installed cable. *Label every data jack or port, patch panel or punch-down block, and connector or circuit. *Use color-coded cables for different purposes and record the color schemes in your documentation. Cables can be purchased in a variety of sheath colors. For example, you might want to use pink for patch cables, green for horizontal wiring, purple for DMZ lines, and gray for vertical (backbone) wiring. *Be certain to update your documentation as you make changes to the network. The more you document, the easier it will be to move or add cable segments in the future. 1 Components of Structured Cabling Subjective Short Answer 2.4 - Track the progress of changes made to a network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 43. How should a company deal with the documentation of passwords? Password documentation must be kept secure, but also must be available for access by multiple people. Otherwise, if the network admin is suddenly incapacitated, you might be unable to retrieve high-security passwords. A password manager, such as KeePass or LastPass, should be utilized to secure passwords. 1 Network Documentation Subjective Short Answer 2.3 - Explain operating procedures, inventory management, labeling conventions, and business documents for a typical network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 44. What is plenum, and what must you do to be able to run cable through plenum space? Plenum is the area above the ceiling tile or below the subflooring. If you run cable in this space, the cable sheath must be plenum-rated. You should also consult with local electric installation codes to be certain you are installing it correctly. 1 Components of Structured Cabling Subjective Short Answer 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 45. In considering a telecommunications service provider's network, what is the demarc, and where is it located? In general, the device that marks where a telecommunications service provider's network ends and the organization's network begins is the demarc, or demarcation point. For example, an ISP (Internet service provider) might be responsible for fiber-optic cabling to your building to connect to your LAN. The device where the WAN ends and the LAN begins is the demarc. The service provider is responsible for its network beyond the demarc, and, in most cases, the organization is responsible for devices and services on the campus side of the demarc. 1 Components of Structured Cabling Subjective Short Answer 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 46. What are some of the different types of software changes? Some of the software changes that you might be called upon to implement include: * patch-A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software. It corrects a bug, closes a vulnerability, or adds minor enhancements to only part of the software, leaving most of the code untouched. * upgrade-A software upgrade is a major change to a software package that enhances the functionality and features of the software, while also correcting bugs and vulnerabilities. * rollback-A software rollback is the process of reverting to a previous version of software after attempting to patch or upgrade it. * installation-New software, such as CRM (customer relationship management) software for sales reps or a financial software package for accountants, must be installed on the relevant devices and incorporated with network resources. 1 Difficult Change Management Subjective Short Answer 2.4 - Track the progress of changes made to a network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 47. What is electromagnetic interference, and how do you avoid its effects? Electromagnetic interference is interference that is caused by motors, power lines, televisions, copiers, fluorescent lights, or other sources of electrical activity. In order to reduce the possibility of noise that can affect your network's signals, you should install cable at least 3 feet away from any EMI sources. 1 Components of Structured Cabling Subjective Short Answer 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 48. When deploying a VoIP solution in a network, what are some of the different types of equipment and devices you may encounter? A VoIP network might contain devices such as VoIP gateways, which convert signals from analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over the Internet, or vice versa. You might also encounter VoIP PBX equipment, which serves as a dedicated telephone switch or virtual switching device that connects and manages calls within a private organization, and manages call connections that exit the network through a VoIP gateway. Internally, this equipment connects to VoIP endpoints, which might be telephones sitting at each user's location or applications hosted on a user's computer or other device. 1 Difficult Components of Structured Cabling Subjective Short Answer 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 49. What is the purpose of a main distribution frame or main distribution facility? Also known as the MC (main cross connect), the MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN. In practice, the term MDF can refer either to the racks holding the network equipment or the room that houses both the racks and the equipment. The MDF and the entrance facility might be in the same data room, or they could be in separate rooms, depending on the layout of the building. Connections branching out from the MDF include Ethernet cables connecting to nearby work areas, large cables to running to IDFs in other buildings or on other floors of the same building, and the incoming connection from the service provider's facility. 1 Difficult Components of Structured Cabling Subjective Short Answer 2.1 - Identify and describe network and cabling equipment in commercial buildings and work areas 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 50. How is a memorandum of understanding document utilized? An MOU (memorandum of understanding) documents the intentions of two or more parties to enter into a binding agreement, or contract, and is sometimes used between an informal handshake and the legally binding signatures on contracts. The MOU can be helpful in pushing along contract negotiations and in defining specific concerns of each party, but it is usually not a legally binding document, does not grant extensive rights to either party, provides no legal recourse, and is not intended to provide thorough coverage of the agreement to come. 1 Difficult Network Documentation Subjective Short Answer 2.3 - Explain operating procedures, inventory management, labeling conventions, and business documents for a typical network 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1/27/2018 1:09 PM 1. A hexadecimal number is a number written in the base 16 number system. a. b. 1 Addressing Overview / 3.1 - Find the MAC address of a computer and explain its function in network communications 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 2. DNS follows a centralized database model, allowing for easier management of DNS records. a. b. 1 Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) / 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 3. ICANN is responsible for restrictions on use of the .com, .org, and .net TLDs. a. b. 1 Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) / 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 4. Each organization that provides host services on the public Internet is responsible for providing and maintaining DNS authoritative servers for public access. a. b. 1 Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) / 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 5. An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits that are written as 10 blocks of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons. a. b. 1 IP Addresses / 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 6. At the root level of the DNS hierarchical structure, 13 clusters of root servers hold information used to locate TLD servers. a. b. 1 Difficult Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) / 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 7. The 1024 - 65535 range of ports is also known as the "well-known" range. a. b. 1 Ports and Sockets / 3.3 - Explain the purpose of ports and sockets, and identify the ports of several common, network protocols 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 8. UDP port 123 is utilized by the Network Time Protocol service. a. b. 1 Ports and Sockets / 3.3 - Explain the purpose of ports and sockets, and identify the ports of several common, network protocols 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 9. When using IPv6, two or more nodes on the same link are said to be neighbors. a. b. 1 IP Addresses / 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 10. The FTP protocol utilizes UDP, while TFTP uses TCP for data transmission. a. b. 1 Ports and Sockets / 3.3 - Explain the purpose of ports and sockets, and identify the ports of several common, network protocols 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 11. At the Transport layer of the OSI, what is used to find and communicate with a particular application running on a host? a. IP addresses b. port numbers c. domain names d. MAC addresses b 1 Addressing Overview Multiple Choice 3.3 - Explain the purpose of ports and sockets, and identify the ports of several common, network protocols 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 12. With a FQDN of ftp1.dallas.mycompany.com, what part is the domain name? a. ftp1 b. ftp1.dallas c. ftp1.dallas.mycompany. d. mycompany.com d 1 Addressing Overview Multiple Choice 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 13. How can you determine the manufacturer of a NIC card based on the MAC address? a. The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer. b. The last 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer. c. The middle 24 bits, known as the Organization Universal Identifier, identify the manufacturer. d. The first 12 bits and last 12 bits combined are known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier. a 1 Difficult MAC Addresses Multiple Choice 3.1 - Find the MAC address of a computer and explain its function in network communications 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 14. What command can you utilize to display TCP/IP configuration information for each network adapter installed? a. ipconfig /show b. ipconfig /list c. ipconfig /all d. ipconfig /full c 1 Troubleshooting Address Problems Multiple Choice 3.5 - Use command-line tools to troubleshoot common network problems 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 15. Which of the following IP addresses would be a loopback IP address? a. 169.254.0.1 b. 192.168.1.1 c. 224.0.0.1 d. 127.0.0.1 d 1 IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 16. What text editor can be used on Linux to view and edit the contents of a configuration file? a. Notepad b. Microsoft Word c. vim d. edit c 1 IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.5 - Use command-line tools to troubleshoot common network problems 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 17. On a Linux-based system, what command can be used to display TCP/IP information associated with every interface on the system? a. ipconfig /all b. ifconfig -a c. ip show d. if status b 1 Troubleshooting Address Problems Multiple Choice 3.5 - Use command-line tools to troubleshoot common network problems 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 18. Which of the following IPv6 addresses represents a global unicast address? a. FE80::10 b. 2000::/3 c. FC00::/7 d. FD00::/8 b 1 Difficult IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 19. Which of the following protocols is used as a signaling protocol for the initial connection between hosts, but does not participate in data transfer during the session? a. NTP b. LDAP c. TFTP d. SIP d 1 Ports and Sockets Multiple Choice 3.3 - Explain the purpose of ports and sockets, and identify the ports of several common, network protocols 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 20. What is by far the most popular DNS server software available? a. Microsoft DNS b. Dnsmasq c. Oracle Resolver d. BIND d 1 Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) Multiple Choice 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 21. Your supervisor has asked you to configure a new prototype network with a dual stack configuration. What does this mean? a. Two different IPv4 address spaces will exist on the same network segment. b. Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network. c. The router serving the network will have a redundant spare. d. The network will exist on two separate segments, separated by a proxy. b 1 IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 22. What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network? a. traceroute b. ifconfig c. ping d. route c 1 Troubleshooting Address Problems Multiple Choice 3.5 - Use command-line tools to troubleshoot common network problems 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 23. You are troubleshooting a network issue on a client computer and discover that the network card has an IP address of 169.254.196.200. What does this mean? a. The computer has been assigned a routed public IP address. b. The network card has been erroneously assigned a loopback address. c. The computer is configured to use DHCP, but was unable to lease an address. d. The network card is set up for multicast communication. c 1 Difficult IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 24. What part of a MAC address serves as the extension identifier, or device ID? a. The first 24 bits of the MAC address. b. The last 24 bits of the MAC address. c. The first 12 bits of the MAC address. d. The last 12 bits of the MAC address. b 1 MAC Addresses Multiple Choice 3.1 - Find the MAC address of a computer and explain its function in network communications 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 25. In the classful addressing scheme, what range of network addresses is considered a Class B? a. 1.x.y.z to 126.x.y.z b. 128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y c. 192.0.0.x to 223.255.255.x d. 224.x.y.z to 255.x.y.z b 1 IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 26. How do routers create a broadcast domain boundary? a. They forward broadcasts only to necessary segments. b. They listen to and direct broadcast traffic. c. They only forward broadcasts that are intended for multiple subnets. d. They do not forward broadcast traffic. d 1 IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 27. Which of the following is NOT a range of IP addresses recommended for use in private networks? a. 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255 b. 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 c. 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255 d. 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 d 1 IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 28. When using DHCP for IPv6 (i.e. DHCPv6), what port do clients receive responses on? a. port 67 b. port 68 c. port 546 d. port 547 d 1 Difficult IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.3 - Explain the purpose of ports and sockets, and identify the ports of several common, network protocols 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 29. What type of IPv6 address is fe80::8cf1:2c42:ffde:da1c? a. global address b. link local address c. multicast address d. anycast address b 1 Difficult IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 30. If a host's IPv6 address contains the network adapter's MAC address within the last 64 bits of the IPv6 address, what standard is being used? a. EUI-64 b. IEEE 802.36 c. UUID-128 d. MACin6 a 1 IP Addresses Multiple Choice 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 31. Encrypted control of remote computers using the RDP protocol is accomplished using what port number? a. TCP 22 b. UDP 161 c. TCP 3389 d. UDP 10000 c 1 Ports and Sockets Multiple Choice 3.3 - Explain the purpose of ports and sockets, and identify the ports of several common, network protocols 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 32. What statement regarding the Server Message Block protocol is accurate? a. It is a simple protocol used to synchronize block messages written to iSCSI drives on a network. b. It is used by Windows and UNIX-based operating systems to share files. c. It is a signaling protocol used to make a connection between hosts prior to data transfer. d. It is a protocol used for accessing network-based LDAP directories. b 1 Ports and Sockets Multiple Choice 3.3 - Explain the purpose of ports and sockets, and identify the ports of several common, network protocols 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 33. What is the ARPA domain suffix utilized for? a. It is a specialized government restricted TLD. b. It is used to announce records for other TLDs such as .com and .net. c. It is a private TLD used for synchronization of zones between servers. d. It is used for reverse DNS queries, and holds PTR records. d 1 Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) Multiple Choice 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 34. In a DNS zone, what type of record holds the name-to-address mapping for IPv6 addresses? a. A record b. AAAA record c. PTR record d. TXT record b 1 Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) Multiple Choice 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 35. You are setting up a DNS zone and have been asked to create SPF and DKIM records. What type of DNS record will hold this information? a. SRV record b. CNAME record c. TXT record d. PTR record c 1 Difficult Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) Multiple Choice 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 36. What does the MX record do in a forward DNS zone? a. It identifies the hostname and port of a computer that hosts a specific network service, such as FTP or SIP. b. It identifies the authoritative name server for a domain. c. It identifies the e-mail server to be used for e-mail traffic for the domain. d. It holds the alternative names for a host. c 1 Difficult Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) Multiple Choice 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 37. You are troubleshooting a DNS issue on a Linux system, and need to test the resolution of your domain mycompany.com MX record using Google's DNS server with the IP address of 8.8.8.8. What dig command will accomplish this? a. dig --server 8.8.8.8 --type=mx mycompany.com b. dig -s 8.8.8.8 -t mx mycompany.com c. dig query 8.8.8.8 domain mycompany.com type mx d. dig @8.8.8.8 mycompany.com MX d 1 Difficult Troubleshooting Address Problems Multiple Choice 3.5 - Use command-line tools to troubleshoot common network problems 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 38. What command can be used to check a domain computer's time source from a Command Prompt window? a. date /source b. w32tm /query /source c. ntpd show source d. time --source b 1 Troubleshooting Address Problems Multiple Choice 3.5 - Use command-line tools to troubleshoot common network problems 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 39. A Windows computer on your network is having issues resolving queries for a specific domain, but not other domains. Other computers on the same network resolve the name just fine. What command can you issue that might fix the problem? a. ipconfig /renew b. ipconfig /release c. ipconfig /flushdns d. ipconfig /refresh c 1 Troubleshooting Address Problems Multiple Choice 3.5 - Use command-line tools to troubleshoot common network problems 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 40. In the DNS hierarchy, where is information about how to find the top-level domain servers held? a. In the hosts file on the local machine. b. On the DNS root servers. c. On DNS caching-only servers. d. In the organization's forward lookup zone. b 1 Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) Multiple Choice 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 41. What is a subnet mask, and how is it used? It is a 32-bit number that helps one computer find another. The 32 bits are used to indicate what portion of an IP address is the network portion, called the network ID or network address, and what part is the host portion, called the host ID or node ID. Using this information, a computer can determine if another computer with a given IP address is on its own or a different network. 1 Difficult IP Addresses Subjective Short Answer 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 42. How is an IPv6 address written and displayed? IPv6 addresses are written and displayed as follows: * An IPv6 address has 128 bits that are written as eight blocks (also called quartets) of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons, like this: 2001:0000:0B80:0000:0000:00D3:9C5A:00CC. * Each block is 16 bits. For example, the first block in the preceding IP address is the hexadecimal number 2001, which can be written as 0010 0000 0000 0001 in binary. * Leading zeroes in a four-character hex block can be eliminated. This means our sample IP address can be written as 2001:0000:B80:0000:0000:D3:9C5A:CC. * If blocks contain all zeroes, they can be eliminated and replaced by double colons (::). To avoid confusion, only one set of double colons is used in an IP address. This means our sample IP address can be written two ways: 2001::B80:0000:0000:D3:9C5A:CC or 2001:0000:B80::D3:9C5A:CC 1 Difficult IP Addresses Subjective Short Answer 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 43. What is the difference between unicast, multicast, and anycast addresses? A unicast address specifies a single node on a network. This differs from a multicast address, which is delivered to all nodes in a targeted, multicast group. An anycast address can identify multiple destinations, with packets delivered to the closest destination. For example, a DNS name server might send a DNS request to a group of DNS servers that have all been assigned the same anycast address. A router handling the request examines routes to all the DNS servers in the group and routes the request to the closest server. 1 IP Addresses Subjective Short Answer 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 44. What are the two different variations of network address translation (NAT)? The two variations of NAT are: * SNAT-Using SNAT (Static Network Address Translation or Source Network Address Translation), the gateway assigns the same public IP address to a host each time it makes a request to access the Internet. Small home networks with only a single public IP address provided by its ISP use SNAT. * DNAT or Destination NAT-Using DNAT (Destination Network Address Translation), hosts outside the network address a computer inside the network by a predefined public IP address. When a message sent to the public IP address reaches the router managing DNAT, the destination IP address is changed to the private IP address of the host inside the network. The router must maintain a translation table of public IP addresses mapped to various hosts inside the network. 1 Difficult IP Addresses Subjective Short Answer 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 45. What is the difference between a port and a socket? A port is a number assigned to a process, such as an application or a service, that can receive data. Whereas an IP address is used to find a computer, a port is used to find a process running on that computer. TCP and UDP ports ensure that data is transmitted to the correct process among multiple processes running on the computer. A socket consists of both a host's IP address and a process's TCP or UDP port, with a colon separating the two values. For example, the standard port for the Telnet service is TCP 23. If a host has an IP address of 10.43.3.87, the socket address for Telnet running on that host is 10.43.3.87:23. 1 Difficult Ports and Sockets Subjective Short Answer 3.3 - Explain the purpose of ports and sockets, and identify the ports of several common, network protocols 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 46. What are the three different types of port number ranges as defined by IANA? Port numbers range from 0 to 65535 and are divided by IANA into three types: * well-known ports-Range from 0 to 1023 and are assigned by IANA to widely used and well-known utilities and applications, such as Telnet, FTP, and HTTP. * registered ports-Range from 1024 to 49151 and can be used temporarily by processes for nonstandard assignments for increased security. Default assignments of these registered ports must be registered with IANA. * dynamic and private ports-Range from 49152 to 65535 and are open for use without restriction. 1 Ports and Sockets Subjective Short Answer 3.3 - Explain the purpose of ports and sockets, and identify the ports of several common, network protocols 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 47. How might an organization configure a DNS server for use on their network? An organization might utilize these four common types of DNS server configurations: * primary DNS server-The authoritative name server for the organization, which holds the authoritative DNS database for the organization's zones. This server is contacted by clients, both local and over the Internet, to resolve DNS queries for the organization's domains. * secondary DNS server-The backup authoritative name server for the organization. When a secondary DNS server needs to update its database, it makes the request to the primary server for the update; this process is called a zone transfer. * caching DNS server-A server that accesses public DNS data and caches the DNS information it collects. This server receives DNS queries from local network clients and works to resolve them by contacting other DNS servers for information. Caching DNS servers do not store zone files (which is why they must rely on their caches and resolution efforts), and therefore do not participate in zone transfers. * forwarding DNS server-An optional server that receives queries from local clients but doesn't work to resolve the queries. Typically, a forwarding server will maintain its own DNS cache from previous queries, and so it might already have the information the client needs. If not, the forwarding server forwards the query to another server to resolve. Several forwarding servers might be strategically placed throughout the organization's network to reduce network traffic on slow links. 1 Difficult Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) Subjective Short Answer 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 48. What are the two different types of DNS requests? There are two types of DNS requests: * recursive query-A query that demands a resolution or the answer "It can't be found." For example, the initial request the resolver makes to the local server is a recursive query. The local server must provide the information requested by the resolver, as in "The buck stops here." * iterative query-A query that does not demand resolution. For example, when the local server issues queries to other servers, the other servers only provide information if they have it. 1 Difficult Domain Names and DNS (Domain Name System) Subjective Short Answer 3.4 - Describe domain names and the name resolution process 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 49. IPv6 has two different types of unicast addresses. How do these two types differ from each other? IPv6 unicast addresses come in two types: * global addresses-Can be routed on the Internet and is similar to public IPv4 addresses. Most begin with the prefix 2000::/3, although other prefixes are being released. The /3 indicates that the first three bits are fixed and are always 001. * link local addresses-Can be used for communicating with nodes in the same link, and is similar to an autoconfigured APIPA address in IPv4. It begins with FE80::/10. The first 10 bits of the reserved prefix are fixed (1111 1110 10), and the remaining 54 bits in the 64-bit prefix are all zeroes. Therefore, a link local address prefix is sometimes written as FE80::/64. Link local addresses are not allowed past the local link or on the Internet. 1 IP Addresses Subjective Short Answer 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 50. Why are the Class D and Class E IPv4 address ranges not available for general use? Class D addresses begin with octets 224 through 239 and are used for multicast transmissions, in which one host sends messages to multiple hosts. An example of this is when a host transmits a videoconference over the Internet to multiple participants. Class E addresses, which begin with 240 through 254, are reserved for research. 1 IP Addresses Subjective Short Answer 3.2 - Configure TCP/IP settings on a computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1/27/2018 1:13 PM 1. UDP provides error checking, but not sequencing. a. b. 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols / 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 2. IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol, as it does not establish a session to send its packets. a. b. 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols / 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 3. IPv4 and IPv6 use the same packet format. a. b. 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols / 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 4. TCP uses a four-step process called a four-way handshake to establish a TCP connection. a. b. 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols / 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 5. The cost of upgrading infrastructure has been a major factor in the slow adoption of IPv6. a. b. 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols / 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 6. In general, a Layer 3 or Layer 4 switch is still optimized for fast Layer 2 data handling. a. b. 1 Routers and How They Work / 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 7. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an interior gateway protocol that uses a link-state algorithm. a. b. 1 Routers and How They Work / 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 8. The Border Gateway Protocol is considered to be a hybrid routing protocol. a. b. 1 Routers and How They Work / 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 9. The pathping utility sends 10 pings per hop by default. a. b. 1 Troubleshooting Route Issues / 4.4 - Employ various TCP/IP utilities for network discovery and troubleshooting 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 10. The CTRL + S key combination can be used to stop an actively running command. a. b. 1 Troubleshooting Route Issues / 4.4 - Employ various TCP/IP utilities for network discovery and troubleshooting 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 11. What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol? a. Connection-oriented Protocol b. Sequencing and checksums c. Framing d. Flow Control c 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 12. What field in an IPv4 packet informs routers the level of precedence they should apply when processing an incoming packet? a. Differentiated Services (DiffServ) b. Internet header length (IHL) c. Time to Live (TTL) d. Padding a 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 13. What command will list only current connections, including IP addresses and port numbers? a. show ip stats b. netstat -n c. netstat -s d. portstat b 1 Troubleshooting Route Issues Multiple Choice 4.4 - Employ various TCP/IP utilities for network discovery and troubleshooting 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 14. What utility is the equivalent to the pathping command on a Linux system? a. mtr b. tracepath c. traceroute d. hping a 1 Troubleshooting Route Issues Multiple Choice 4.4 - Employ various TCP/IP utilities for network discovery and troubleshooting 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 15. Which statement regarding the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is accurate? a. BGP is limited to a single autonomous system. b. BGP is exclusively a distance-vector protocol. c. BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates. d. BGP is a more advanced version of OSPF. c 1 Routers and How They Work Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 16. In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver before acknowledgment is received? a. urgent pointer b. sliding-window c. URG flag d. PSH flag b 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.2 - Identify how each protocol's information is formatted in a TCP/IP message 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 17. Which of the following is not a task handled by a router? a. A router forwards broadcasts over the network. b. A router can reroute traffic if the path of first choice is down but a second path is available. c. A router can interpret Layer 3 and often Layer 4 addressing. d. A router can connect dissimilar networks. a 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 18. The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data? a. UDP b. ICMP c. TCP d. ARP c 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 19. You are connected to your network's Cisco router, and need to verify the route table. What command should you enter? a. route print b. show ip route c. route -a d. show route-table b 1 Routers and How They Work Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 20. Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the host srv1.mycompany.com? a. traceroute -i srv1.mycompany.com b. traceroute -w srv1.mycompany.com c. traceroute -o ICMP srv1.mycompany.com d. traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com d 1 Troubleshooting Route Issues Multiple Choice 4.4 - Employ various TCP/IP utilities for network discovery and troubleshooting 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 21. What is the purpose of the checksum TCP field? a. It specifies special options, such as the maximum segment size a network can handle. b. It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission. c. It identifies the data segment's position in the stream of data segments being sent. d. It confirms receipt of data via a return message to the sender. b 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.2 - Identify how each protocol's information is formatted in a TCP/IP message 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 22. What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0? a. The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host. b. The router attempts to forward the traffic on a local network. c. The router resets the TTL to 128. d. The router marks the packet as corrupted and forwards it to the next hop. a 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.2 - Identify how each protocol's information is formatted in a TCP/IP message 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 23. In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to? a. traffic class b. group ID c. flow label d. traffic exchange c 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.2 - Identify how each protocol's information is formatted in a TCP/IP message 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 24. What is routing protocol convergence time defined as? a. It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change. b. It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize that a change has occurred. c. It is the amount of time it takes after initial configuration of the protocol for all routes to become known. d. It is the amount of time involved in configuration of the routing protocol. a 1 Routers and How They Work Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 25. Routing protocols that enable routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to independently map the network, are known as which type of protocols? a. interior gateway protocols b. border gateway protocols c. distance vector protocols d. link-state protocols d 1 Routers and How They Work Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 26. Which routing protocol started as a Cisco proprietary protocol and combines some of the features of a link-state protocol with that of distance-vector protocols? a. IS-IS b. BGP c. OSPF d. EIGRP d 1 Routers and How They Work Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 27. You have been tasked with the replacement of OSPF with EIGRP throughout your organization, which consists of a mixture of Cisco routers and routers from other vendors. What statement is accurate? a. EIGRP will increase CPU utilization on core routers. b. Increased traffic will result from the switch to EIGRP. c. EIGRP may not be available on non-Cisco routers. d. Convergence time will be increased with EIGRP. c 1 Difficult Routers and How They Work Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 28. What tcpdump command can be used to filter out all traffic except SSH traffic? a. tcpdump port 22 b. tcpdump -p 22 c. tcpdump only ssh d. tcpdump -f +ssh a 1 Troubleshooting Route Issues Multiple Choice 4.4 - Employ various TCP/IP utilities for network discovery and troubleshooting 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 29. Which command will produce statistics about each message transmitted by a host, separated according to protocol type? a. ipconfig -s b. netstat -s c. ipstat -a d. netstat -an b 1 Troubleshooting Route Issues Multiple Choice 4.4 - Employ various TCP/IP utilities for network discovery and troubleshooting 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 30. When using the Routing Information Protocol (RIP), what is the maximum number of hops a message can take between its source and its destination before the destination is considered unreachable? a. 8 b. 15 c. 20 d. 32 b 1 Routers and How They Work Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 31. What occurs when a collision happens on a network? a. The collision goes undetected, and data transmission continues. b. The collision will create an error in the network switch, but otherwise, no issues will occur as a result. c. Each node on the network stops transmitting, until manually told to reconnect and transmit. d. Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission. d 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 32. You have been tasked with maintaining a network that is jumbo frame enabled. What does this mean? a. The MTU for the network can be as high as 9198 bytes. b. The network is not based on the Ethernet standard. c. Fragmented frames will be consolidated into whole frames before being sent. d. The MTU for the network is set at 65,535 bytes. a 1 Difficult TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 33. What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets? a. flow label b. next header c. hop limit d. distance vector c 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 34. If the VLAN tag is present in an Ethernet frame, what is the maximum frame size? a. 1492 bytes b. 1500 bytes c. 1518 bytes d. 1522 bytes d 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.2 - Identify how each protocol's information is formatted in a TCP/IP message 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 35. By default, what is the MTU size on a typical Ethernet network? a. 1492 bytes b. 1500 bytes c. 1518 bytes d. 1522 bytes b 1 TCP/IP Core Protocols Multiple Choice 4.2 - Identify how each protocol's information is formatted in a TCP/IP message 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 36. What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay? a. theoretical bandwidth b. MTU c. latency d. load c 1 Routers and How They Work Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 37. Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol? a. OSPF maintains a database of other routers' links. b. OSPF has no hop limits on a transmission path. c. OSPF provides low network overhead. d. OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources. d 1 Routers and How They Work Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 38. Originally codified by ISO, what does the "intermediate system" in IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) stand for? a. The autonomous systems used by an organization. b. An entire network consisting of various network devices. c. The administrative boundaries of an organization. d. An IS-IS capable network router. d 1 Routers and How They Work Multiple Choice 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 39. What statement regarding the differences between the Windows tracert utility and the Linux/UNIX/macOS traceroute utility is accurate? a. Only tracert can send UDP messages for tracing a path. b. By default, the tracert utility uses ICMP echo requests, while traceroute uses UDP datagrams or TCP SYN messages. c. The Windows tracert utility does not place limits on the TTL of repeated trial messages. d. The tracert utility expects an ICMP port unreachable error message as the final reply to a trace. b 1 Difficult Troubleshooting Route Issues Multiple Choice 4.4 - Employ various TCP/IP utilities for network discovery and troubleshooting 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 40. In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate? a. The hosts that share the same MAC addresses will be completely unable to communicate with any other devices. b. The hosts will generate new MAC addresses until the conflict is resolved. c. The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination. d. The network switch will eventually crash due to being unable to properly forward traffic. c 1 Difficult Troubleshooting Route Issues Multiple Choice 4.4 - Employ various TCP/IP utilities for network discovery and troubleshooting 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 41. How does IPv6 utilize Neighbor Discovery Protocol to detect neighboring devices? IPv6 devices use NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol) in ICMPv6 messages to automatically detect neighboring devices, and to automatically adjust when neighboring nodes fail or are removed from the network. NDP eliminates the need for ARP and some ICMP functions in IPv6 networks, and is much more resistant to hacking attempts than ARP. 1 Troubleshooting Route Issues Subjective Short Answer 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 42. What are the different categories of routers, and how do they compare? Some of the different categories of routers are as follows: * Core routers, also called interior routers, are located inside networks within the same autonomous system. An AS (autonomous system) is a group of networks, often on the same domain, that are operated by the same organization. An AS is sometimes referred to as a trusted network because the entire domain is under the organization's control. Core routers communicate only with routers within the same AS. * Edge routers, or border routers, connect an autonomous system with an outside network, also called an untrusted network. For example, the router that connects a business with its ISP is an edge router. * Exterior router refers to any router outside the organization's AS, such as a router on the Internet backbone. Sometimes a technician might refer to her own edge router as an exterior router because it communicates with routers outside the AS. But keep in mind that every router communicating over the Internet is an edge router for some organization's AS, even if that organization is a large telecommunications company managing a portion of the Internet backbone. 1 Difficult Routers and How They Work Subjective Short Answer 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 43. How are routing paths determined? Routing paths are determined in one of two ways: * static routing-A network administrator configures a routing table to direct messages along specific paths between networks. For example, it's common to see a static route between a small business and its ISP. However, static routes can't account for occasional network congestion, failed connections, or device moves, and they require human intervention. * dynamic routing-A router automatically calculates the best path between two networks and accumulates this information in its routing table. If congestion or failures affect the network, a router using dynamic routing can detect the problems and reroute messages through a different path. When a router is added to a network, dynamic routing ensures that the new router's routing tables are updated. 1 Routers and How They Work Subjective Short Answer 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 44. What are some examples of routing metrics that can be used to determine the best path for a network? Some examples of routing metrics used to determine the best path may include: * Hop count, which is the number of network segments crossed * Theoretical bandwidth and actual throughput on a potential path * Delay, or latency, on a potential path, which results in slower performance * Load, which is the traffic or processing burden sustained by a router in the path * MTU, which is the largest IP packet size in bytes allowed by routers in the path without fragmentation (excludes the frame size on the local network) * Routing cost, which is a value assigned to a particular route as judged by the network administrator; the more desirable the path, the lower its cost * Reliability of a potential path, based on historical performance * A network's topology 1 Difficult Routers and How They Work Subjective Short Answer 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 45. There are several interior gateway protocols, but only one current exterior gateway protocol. What is this protocol, and what characteristics does it have? The Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is the only current exterior gateway protocol, and has been dubbed the "protocol of the Internet." Whereas OSPF and IS-IS scouting parties only scout out their home territory, a BGP scouting party can go cross-country. BGP spans multiple autonomous systems and is used by edge and exterior routers on the Internet. Here are some special characteristics of BGP: * path-vector routing protocol-Communicates via BGP-specific messages that travel between routers over TCP sessions. * efficient-Determines best paths based on many different factors. * customizable-Can be configured to follow policies that might, for example, avoid a certain router, or instruct a group of routers to prefer one particular route over other available routes. 1 Difficult Routers and How They Work Subjective Short Answer 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 46. How can a network switch be said to operate at Layer 4 of the OSI model? A Layer 4 switch is capable of interpreting Layer 4 data. They operate anywhere between Layer 4 and Layer 7 and are also known as content switches or application switches. Among other things, the ability to interpret higher layer data enables switches to perform advanced filtering, keep statistics, and provide security functions. In general, however, a Layer 4 switch is still optimized for fast Layer 2 data handling. 1 Routers and How They Work Subjective Short Answer 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 47. What are some of the basic functions of a network router? Although any one router can be specialized for a variety of tasks, all routers can do the following: * Connect dissimilar networks, such as a LAN and a WAN, which use different types of routing protocols. * Interpret Layer 3 and often Layer 4 addressing and other information (such as quality of service indicators). * Determine the best path for data to follow from point A to point B. The best path is the most efficient route to the message's destination calculated by the router, based upon the information the router has available to it. * Reroute traffic if the path of first choice is down but another path is available. 1 Routers and How They Work Subjective Short Answer 4.3 - Explain how routers manage internetwork communications 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 48. ARP tables might contain two different types of entries. What are they, and how are they created? ARP tables can contain two types of entries: dynamic and static. Dynamic ARP table entries are created when a client makes an ARP request for information that could not be satisfied by data already in the ARP table; once received, the new information is recorded in the table for future reference. Static ARP table entries are those that someone has entered manually using the ARP utility. This ARP utility, accessed via the arp command in both Windows and Linux, provides a way of obtaining information from and manipulating a device's ARP table. 1 Difficult TCP/IP Core Protocols Subjective Short Answer 4.1 - Describe the functions of core TCP/IP protocols 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 49. How is the TTL (Time to Live) field utilized in IPv4? The TTL field indicates the maximum duration that the packet can remain on the network before it is discarded. Although this field was originally meant to represent units of time, on modern networks it represents the number of times a packet can still be forwarded by a router, or the maximum number of router hops it has remaining.The TTL for packets varies and can be configured; it is usually set at 32 or 64. Each time a packet passes through a router, its TTL is reduced by 1. When a router receives a packet with a TTL equal to 0, it discards that packet and sends a TTL expired message via ICMP back to the source host. 1 Difficult TCP/IP Core Protocols Subjective Short Answer 4.2 - Identify how each protocol's information is formatted in a TCP/IP message 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 50. What is MAC address spoofing? MAC address spoofing is the impersonation of an MAC address by an attacker. On a network where access is limited to certain devices based on their MAC address, an attacker can spoof an approved device's MAC address and gain access to the network. This is a relatively attack to carry out, which is why MAC address filtering is not considered a reliable way to control access to a network. 1 Difficult Troubleshooting Route Issues Subjective Short Answer 4.4 - Employ various TCP/IP utilities for network discovery and troubleshooting 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1/27/2018 1:15 PM 1. A serial cable with an RJ-45 connector is capable of being used through an RJ-45 Ethernet port. a. b. 1 Copper Cable / 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 2. Multimode fiber contains a core that is larger than a single mode fiber core. a. b. 1 Fiber-Optic Cable / 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 3. A continuity tester should not be used on a live network segment. a. b. 1 Troubleshooting Tools / 5.4 - Select and use the appropriate tool to troubleshoot common cable problems 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 4. In order to achieve 1000Base-T over CAT5e cable, 2 pairs of copper are needed. a. b. 1 Copper Cable / 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 5. The ST and SC fiber connectors are the most commonly found connectors due to their smaller sizes. a. b. 1 Fiber-Optic Cable / 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 6. A time domain reflectometer sends a signal and analyzes the return signal's change in amplitude to determine where cable imperfections may exist. a. b. 1 Troubleshooting Tools / 5.4 - Select and use the appropriate tool to troubleshoot common cable problems 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 7. Latency on data networks is based on a calculation of a packet's round trip time (RTT). a. b. 1 Transmission Basics / 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 8. RG-59 is more expensive than RG-6, but has better resistance to attenuation. a. b. 1 Copper Cable / 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 9. A short circuit is one where needed connections are missing, such as when a wire breaks. a. b. 1 Troubleshooting Tools / 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 10. A wavelength mismatch occurs when transmissions are optimized for one type of cable but sent over a different type of cable. a. b. 1 Fiber-Optic Cable / 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 11. What is the minimum category of UTP cable required in order to support Gigabit speeds? a. Cat 3 b. Cat 5 c. Cat 5e d. Cat 6 c 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 12. What is the maximum supported throughput of a CAT6 cable? a. 100 Mbps b. 1 Gbps c. 10 Gbps d. 100 Gbps c 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 13. PoE+ devices are defined by what IEEE standard? a. 802.3at b. 802.3af c. 802.3fc d. 802.3c a 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 14. Both 10GBase-ER and 10GBase-EW have what maximum distance limitation on a segment of single mode fiber? a. 550m b. 300m c. 10km d. 40km d 1 Fiber-Optic Cable Multiple Choice 5.3 - Compare the benefits and limitations of various networking media 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 15. Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is? a. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal. b. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs near the opposite end of a signal source. c. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs when an EMI source is near the data signal source. d. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs only when a cable segment exceeds the bend radius. a 1 Transmission Basics Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 16. What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment? a. statistical time division multiplexing b. dense wavelength division multiplexing c. coarse wavelength division multiplexing d. spaced wavelength division multiplexing c 1 Transmission Basics Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 17. A junior administrator is having issues connecting to a router's console port using a TIA/EIA 568B standard cable and a USB serial to RJ-45 adapter, despite verifying terminal settings. What is the issue? a. Router console ports are only used when connected to other routers. b. The router console port is providing an Ethernet connection, instead of a serial connection. c. The USB standard is incompatible with the serial connection used by the console port. d. The cable must be a rollover cable. d 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 18. Noise that can degrade or distort a signal on a network is measured with what unit? a. joules b. volts c. decibels d. farads c 1 Transmission Basics Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 19. What statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation? a. A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device. b. A network switch interface is dropping due to a powerful radio transmitter in the adjacent room. c. A customer's video conferencing application is experiencing delay in audio and video that comes and goes. d. Two network interfaces are experiencing problems at the same time due to the cables having adjacent runs. a 1 Transmission Basics Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 20. Utilizing time slots that are adjusted according to priority and need is an example of what type of multiplexing on copper lines? a. time division multiplexing b. statistical time division multiplexing c. frequency division multiplexing d. wavelength division multiplexing b 1 Transmission Basics Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 21. In a coaxial cabling, what does the RG rating measure? a. The number of twists in the copper core. b. The overall thickness of the cable. c. The maximum distance the cable is rated for, in kilometers. d. The materials used for shielding and conducting cores. d 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 22. You have been awarded a contract for wiring a new federal building. What twisted-pair wiring standard must you use? a. TIA/EIA 568A b. TIA/EIA 568B c. TIA/EIA 568F d. TIA/EIA rollover a 1 Difficult Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 23. A Fast Ethernet connection utilizes what pins on an RJ-45 plug? a. 1, 2, 4, 5 b. 1, 2, 3, 5 c. 1, 2, 3, 6 d. 1, 2, 7, 8 c 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 24. When terminating an Ethernet cable, about how far should the cable sheath extend into the plug? a. 1/2 inch b. 3/8 inch c. 4/5 inch d. 1/5 inch b 1 Difficult Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 25. What is the fastest Ethernet standard that can possibly be used on twisted-pair cabling? a. 100Base-T b. 1000Base-T c. 10GBase-T d. 10TBase-T c 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 26. Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling is accurate? a. Fiber-optic cabling has a low resistance to signal noise. b. Light experiences virtually no resistance when traveling through glass. c. Fiber-optic cable is cheaper than shielded twisted pair cabling. d. The maximum length for a fiber segment is 20km. b 1 Difficult Fiber-Optic Cable Multiple Choice 5.3 - Compare the benefits and limitations of various networking media 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 27. A typical fiber termination kit should include what tool for cutting a clean slice through fiber strands? a. fiber stripper b. fiber snipper c. fiber cleaver d. fiber saw c 1 Fiber-Optic Cable Multiple Choice 5.4 - Select and use the appropriate tool to troubleshoot common cable problems 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 28. What is the industry standard angle for an Angle Polished Connector (APC)? a. 8 degrees b. 12 degrees c. 14 degrees d. 16 degrees a 1 Fiber-Optic Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 29. You've been handed a fiber with a 1.25-mm ferrule that requires a connector. What is the most commonly used connector for this ferrule size? a. subscriber connector (SC) b. straight tip (ST) c. Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MTRJ) d. local connector (LC) d 1 Fiber-Optic Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 30. Which of the following statements correctly describes the SFP+ transceiver? a. SFP+ provides the same function as GBICs and is more compact. It is theoretically capable of 5 Gbps. b. SFP+ supports up to 10 Gbps and is slightly larger than SFP, with lower power consumption than XFP. c. SFP+ is the same size as SFP, and supports a theoretical maximum transmission speed of 16 Gbps. d. SFP+ complies with the 802.3ba standard, allowing four channels in a single transceiver and supporting up to 40 Gbps data rates. c 1 Fiber-Optic Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 31. The 1000Base-LX utilizes light with what wavelength? a. 850 nanometers b. 1200 nanometers c. 1300 nanometers d. 1550 nanometers c 1 Difficult Fiber-Optic Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 32. What kind of tool can you use to measure voltage on a cable length? a. continuity tester b. multimeter c. time domain reflectometer d. light meter b 1 Troubleshooting Tools Multiple Choice 5.4 - Select and use the appropriate tool to troubleshoot common cable problems 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 33. Why should you terminate coaxial cable with connectors that are rated for the exact cable type? a. A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors. b. A mismatched connector will not fit the coaxial cable for termination. c. A mismatched connector will work fine, but breaks cabling standards. d. A mismatched connector will destroy the equipment it is connected to. a 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 34. When viewing the pinout for T568B, what is the correct order of wire colors, starting at pin 1? a. white/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown b. blue, white/blue, green, white/green, orange, white/orange, brown, white/brown c. white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown d. white/brown, brown, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, orange, white/orange c 1 Difficult Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 35. Telephone connections follow what registered jack standard? a. registered jack 11 (RJ-11) b. registered jack 12 (RJ-12) c. registered jack 45 (RJ-45) d. registered jack 100 (RJ-100) a 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 36. What statement regarding the Power Over Ethernet standards is inaccurate? a. The amount of power provided is 15.4 watts for standard PoE devices. b. Power over Ethernet requires CAT6 or better copper cable. c. Electric current may run over a pair of wires used for data transmission. d. A device that supplies power for PoE is known as power sourcing equipment. b 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 37. Bidirectional transceivers utilize what technology to separate the data in each direction? a. wavelength division multiplexing b. time division multiplexing c. frequency division multiplexing d. statistical time division multiplexing a 1 Difficult Transmission Basics Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 38. Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal? a. full-duplex b. duplex c. half-duplex d. simplex d 1 Transmission Basics Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 39. What statement correctly describes "jitter"? a. Jitter is what happens when packets experience varying amounts of delay and arrive out of order. b. Jitter is the loss of 50% or more packets in a given data stream, causing a connection to falter. c. Jitter is the fluctuation of a signal's strength as it travels away from its source. d. Jitter is the transmission of signal onto unintended pairs in a copper cable. a 1 Transmission Basics Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 40. Broadband cable Internet service and cable TV are most commonly delivered over long distances via what type of cable? a. RG-59 b. RG-6 c. RG-20 d. LRG-50 b 1 Copper Cable Multiple Choice 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 41. How does a time domain reflectometer (TDR) work? A TDR issues a signal on a cable and then measures the way the signal bounces back (or reflects) to the TDR. Bad connectors, crimps, bends, short circuits, cable mismatches, bad wiring, or other defects modify the signal's amplitude before it returns to the TDR, thus changing the way it reflects. The TDR then accepts and analyzes the return signal, and based on its condition and the amount of time the signal took to return, determines cable imperfections. 1 Difficult Troubleshooting Tools Subjective Short Answer 5.4 - Select and use the appropriate tool to troubleshoot common cable problems 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 42. What is the difference between bandwidth and throughput? Bandwidth is the amount of data that could theoretically be transmitted during a given period of time. In an analogy, the bandwidth of a three-lane freeway is the number of vehicles that can pass a checkpoint in one minute when traffic is bumper-to-bumper and traveling at the maximum speed limit. In practice, that bandwidth never happens. Still, we could increase potential bandwidth by adding more lanes to the freeway. At the same time, consider that adding too many lanes for the amount of anticipated traffic, so that some lanes are never used, would be a waste of resources. Throughput is the measure of how much data is actually transmitted during a given period of time. In our analogy, throughput measures the actual traffic on the three-lane freeway that passes in one minute. Using all the available bandwidth results in more accidents and traffic jams than if bandwidth exceeds actual throughput by a little. However, this beneficial effect is limited-providing a lot more potential bandwidth than actual throughput does not achieve additional improvement in performance unless you need to account for regular spikes in traffic. 1 Difficult Transmission Basics Subjective Short Answer 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 43. Noise can degrade or distort a signal on a network; what are some of its causes? Two common sources of noise are: * EMI (electromagnetic interference)-Caused by motors, power lines, televisions, copiers, fluorescent lights, microwave ovens, manufacturing machinery, and other sources of electrical activity (including a severe thunderstorm). One type of EMI is RFI (radio frequency interference), or electromagnetic interference caused by radio waves. (Often, you'll see EMI referred to as EMI/RFI.) Strong broadcast signals from radio or TV antennas can generate RFI. * crosstalk-Occurs when a signal traveling on one wire or cable infringes on the signal traveling over an adjacent wire or cable. The resulting noise, or crosstalk, is equal to a portion of the second line's signal. If you've ever been on a traditional, landline phone and heard the conversation on a second line in the background, you have heard the effects of crosstalk. 1 Difficult Transmission Basics Subjective Short Answer 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 44. What is the biggest limiting factor on fiber-optic cable length? The maximum length limitation is due primarily to optical loss, or the degradation of the light signal after it travels a certain distance away from its source (just as the light of a flashlight dims after a certain number of feet). Optical loss accrues over long distances and grows with every connection point in the fiber network. Dust or oil in a connection (for example, from people handling the fiber while splicing it) can further exacerbate optical loss. 1 Difficult Fiber-Optic Cable Subjective Short Answer 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 45. How does modal bandwidth affect the performance of a multimode fiber segment? Modal bandwidth is a measure of the highest frequency of signal a multimode fiber can support over a specific distance and is measured in MHz-km. It is related to the distortion that occurs when multiple pulses of light, although issued at the same time, arrive at the end of a fiber at slightly different times. The higher the modal bandwidth, the longer a multimode fiber can carry a signal reliably. 1 Difficult Fiber-Optic Cable Subjective Short Answer 5.1 - Explain basic data transmission concepts, including throughput, bandwidth, multiplexing, and common transmission flaws 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 46. When tracing a wire, how do you utilize a toner and probe kit? Place the tone generator at one end of a wire using the appropriate connector. Swipe the tone locator over each of the terminations you suspect to be the other end of that wire. You can verify the location of the wire's termination when you hear the tone. Work by trial and error, guessing which termination corresponds to the wire over which you've generated a signal until the tone locator indicates the correct choice. 1 Troubleshooting Tools Subjective Short Answer 5.4 - Select and use the appropriate tool to troubleshoot common cable problems 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 47. What is the difference between single mode fiber and multimode fiber, and how do they compare? SMF (single mode fiber) consists of a narrow core of 8 to 10 microns in diameter. Laser-generated light travels a single path over the core, reflecting very little. Because it reflects little, the light does not disperse as the signal travels along the fiber. This continuity allows SMF to accommodate the highest bandwidths and longest distances (without requiring repeaters) of all network transmission media. MMF (multimode fiber) contains a core with a larger diameter than SMF, usually 50 or 62.5 microns, over which many pulses of light generated by a laser or LED light source travel at various angles. Signals traveling over multimode fiber experience greater attenuation than those traversing single mode fiber. Therefore, MMF is not suited to distances longer than a few kilometers. On the other hand, MMF is less expensive to install and, therefore, typically used to connect routers, switches, and servers on the backbone of a network or to connect a desktop workstation to the network. 1 Difficult Fiber-Optic Cable Subjective Short Answer 5.3 - Compare the benefits and limitations of various networking media 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 48. What is a fiber distribution panel, and how is it used? It is usually a case on a rack where fiber cables converge, connect with each other, and connect with fiber optic terminal equipment from the ISP. Splices at the FDP (or elsewhere on the network) might be accomplished by joining two fiber cables in a permanent bond, or various connectors might be used to create temporary splices. The transition between single mode fiber and multimode fiber cabling might also occur at an FDP. 1 Difficult Fiber-Optic Cable Subjective Short Answer 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 49. Describe the two different shapes and polishes currently used on SMF ferrules to reduce back reflection. Shapes and polishes currently used on SMF ferrules to reduce back reflection include: * UPC (Ultra Polished Connector)-Extensive polishing of the tips creates a rounded surface on a UPC (Ultra Polished Connector), which allows the two internal fibers to meet and increases efficiency over older types of connections. * APC (Angle Polished Connector)-The latest advancement in ferrule technology uses the principles of reflection to its advantage. The APC (Angle Polished Connector) still uses a polished curved surface, but the end faces are placed at an angle to each other. The industry standard for this angle is 8 degrees. 1 Difficult Fiber-Optic Cable Subjective Short Answer 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 50. What are the different transceiver types that have made the GBIC obsolete? Newer transceivers that have made the GBIC obsolete include: * SFP (small form-factor pluggable)-Provides the same function as GBICs and is more compact, allowing more ports per linear inch. Also known as mini GBICs or SFP GBICs. Typically used for 1 Gbps connections, but theoretically capable of 5 Gbps. * XFP (10 Gigabit small form-factor pluggable)-Supports up to 10 Gbps and is slightly larger than SFP with lower power consumption than SFP+. * SFP+-Developed later than XFP and is the same module size as SFP; theoretical maximum transmission speed is 16 Gbps. * QSFP (quad small form-factor pluggable)-Complies with the 802.3ba standard, squeezing four channels in a single transceiver and supporting data rates up to 40 Gbps (4 x 10 Gbps). * QSFP+-Generally the same technology as QSFP while supporting data rates over 40 Gbps. Highest speed format currently is QSFP28 with a total theoretical maximum data rate of 112 Gbps (4 x 28 Gbps). * CFP (centum form-factor pluggable)-Intended for 100-Gbps network connections, with each succeeding generation (CFP, CFP2, CFP4) becoming smaller and more energy-efficient. Centum is Latin for 100. 1 Difficult Fiber-Optic Cable Subjective Short Answer 5.2 - Identify and describe the physical characteristics and official standards of coaxial cable, twisted-pair cable, and fiber-optic cable, and their related connectors 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1/27/2018 1:19 PM 1. All wireless signals are carried through the air by electromagnetic waves. a. b. 1 Characteristics of Wireless Transmissions / 6.1 - Identify and describe various types of wireless networking characteristics 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 2. NFC tags are very expensive and cannot be purchased blank, requiring them to be pre-loaded. a. b. 1 Wireless Standards for the IoT (Internet of Things) / 6.2 - Explain the various wireless standards that support the Internet of Things 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 3. The Wi-Fi Protected Setup PIN can be easily cracked through a brute force attack. a. b. 1 Wi-Fi Network Security / 6.5 - Secure a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 4. Infrared technology utilizes an LED that emits light with shorter wavelengths than red light. a. b. 1 Wireless Standards for the IoT (Internet of Things) / 6.2 - Explain the various wireless standards that support the Internet of Things 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 5. The most secure Wi-Fi communication is made possible by combining a RADIUS server with WPA or WPA2, known as WPA-Enterprise or WPA2-Enterprise, respectively. a. b. 1 Wi-Fi Network Security / 6.5 - Secure a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 6. Due to many vulnerabilities and a short key length, the WPA security standard was replaced with WEP. a. b. 1 Wi-Fi Network Security / 6.5 - Secure a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 7. The Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is defined in the 802.15 standard. a. b. 1 Wireless Standards for the IoT (Internet of Things) / 6.2 - Explain the various wireless standards that support the Internet of Things 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 8. Z-Wave transmissions have a range of up to 50m per hop, and can tolerate up to 8 hops through repeaters. a. b. 1 Wireless Standards for the IoT (Internet of Things) / 6.2 - Explain the various wireless standards that support the Internet of Things 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 9. An 802.11 data frame contains four address fields, in contrast to the two address fields in 802.3 Ethernet. a. b. 1 802.11 WLAN Standards / 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 10. The LLC sublayer is primarily concerned with managing MAC addresses in message frames. a. b. 1 802.11 WLAN Standards / 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 11. Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation? a. The signal is redirected into multiple directions. b. The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split. c. The signal is returned back towards the source of the original signal. d. The signal is completely absorbed by the diffracting material. b 1 Characteristics of Wireless Transmissions Multiple Choice 6.1 - Identify and describe various types of wireless networking characteristics 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 12. How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission? a. It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium. b. It splits the signal into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split. c. It causes the signal to be returned back towards the source of the origin. d. It causes the signal to be absorbed by the refracting material. a 1 Characteristics of Wireless Transmissions Multiple Choice 6.1 - Identify and describe various types of wireless networking characteristics 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 13. In Linux, what command can be used for viewing and setting wireless interface parameters? a. ifconfig b. iwconfig c. wlanconf d. wifid b 1 Implementing a Wi-Fi Network Multiple Choice 6.4 - Implement a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 14. At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary? a. Physical layer b. Network layer c. Data link layer d. Transport layer a 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 15. What special signal is issued periodically from an AP and contains the network transmission rate and service set identifier (SSID), as well as other information needed for a computer to associate with the AP? a. broadcast frame b. beacon frame c. announcement packet d. alert message b 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 16. In IEEE terminology, a group of stations that share an access point are said to be part of which of the following? a. extended service set b. basic service set c. modified service set d. generic service set b 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 17. What 802.11 frame type is involved in association and reassociation, including probe and beacon frames? a. management frames b. control frames c. data frames d. extended frames a 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 18. Which 802.11 frame type is related to medium access and data delivery, and includes ACK and RTS/CTS frames? a. management frames b. control frames c. data frames d. extended frames b 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 19. How does the 802.11 data frame indicate how a large packet should be fragmented? a. It uses the preamble header to estimate the ideal packet size. b. The frame check sequence dictates the calculated packet size. c. The sequence control field indicates how packets will be subdivided. d. The duration field determines how long the station can transmit a packet, which then determines how it is divided. c 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 20. The use of multiple antennas on an access point to issue a signal to one or more receivers is enabled by what 802.11 innovation? a. multiple input-multiple output (MIMO) b. channel bonding c. frame aggregation d. spread spectrum frequency hopping a 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 21. In an 802.11 data frame, what is the size of the frame check sequence field? a. 2 bytes b. 4 bytes c. 6 bytes d. 8 bytes c 1 Difficult 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 22. How many data streams are used in 802.11ac Wave 2 devices? a. 2 data streams b. 3 data streams c. 4 data streams d. 8 data streams c 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 23. The wireless spectrum, as defined by the FCC, spans between which two frequencies? a. 9 kHz and 300 GHz b. 125 kHz and 150 GHz c. 3 kHz and 500 GHz d. 3 MHz and 300 GHz a 1 Difficult Characteristics of Wireless Transmissions Multiple Choice 6.1 - Identify and describe various types of wireless networking characteristics 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 24. The 802.11 standard specifies the use of what technique in order to minimize the potential for collisions? a. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Mitigation (CMSA/CM) d. Carrier Sense Single Access with Collision Adaptation (CSSA/CA) a 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 25. 802.11ac Wave 2 devices can theoretically support how much maximum throughput? a. 600 Mbps b. 1.3 Gbps c. 3.47 Gbps d. 6.93 Gbps c 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 26. A wireless node that is in active scanning mode transmits what special type of frame in order to find available access points? a. beacon frame b. association request c. probe frame d. ping frame c 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 27. What type of device can be used to assess the quality of a wireless signal? a. Wi-Fi analyzer b. spectrum analyzer c. channel scanner d. frequency hopper b 1 Troubleshooting Wi-Fi Networks Multiple Choice 6.6 - Troubleshoot a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 28. What scenario describes an evil twin attack? a. A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point. b. An attacker is actively attempting to brute force the PIN of a WPS enabled access point. c. A hacker is actively sending wireless probes to discover available wireless networks. d. A hacker is utilizing a protocol analyzer on a public Wi-Fi network to discover packet contents. a 1 Wi-Fi Network Security Multiple Choice 6.5 - Secure a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 29. Which Bluetooth power class allows for a maximum power output of 100 mW and a range of up to 100 m? a. Class 1 b. Class 2 c. Class A d. Class X a 1 Wireless Standards for the IoT (Internet of Things) Multiple Choice 6.2 - Explain the various wireless standards that support the Internet of Things 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 30. Healing messages are a feature of what smart home protocol? a. ZigBee b. Bluetooth c. Z-Wave d. ANT+ c 1 Wireless Standards for the IoT (Internet of Things) Multiple Choice 6.2 - Explain the various wireless standards that support the Internet of Things 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 31. When using RFID, what is an ARPT (Active Reader Passive Tag)? a. It is a battery-powered tag actively transmits its credentials at regular time intervals, which can be read remotely. b. It is a tag that requires an active reader, but still contains a battery in the tag. c. It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission. d. It is a tag that can be read remotely up to a distance of 50 m, but requires a powerful active reader. c 1 Wireless Standards for the IoT (Internet of Things) Multiple Choice 6.2 - Explain the various wireless standards that support the Internet of Things 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 32. Near-field communication devices send data at what fixed frequency? a. 8.65 MHz b. 13.56 MHz c. 21.39 MHz d. 47.1 MHz b 1 Wireless Standards for the IoT (Internet of Things) Multiple Choice 6.2 - Explain the various wireless standards that support the Internet of Things 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 33. What is the purpose of the Layer 2 LLC sublayer? a. It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability. b. It is used to manage MAC addresses in message frames. c. It performs management of the physical layer's modulation techniques. d. It is used to manage low-level encryption on a network. a 1 Difficult 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 34. What optional protocol can be used in 802.11 to reserve the medium for one node's use? a. RTS/CTS (Request to Send/Clear to Send) b. RAR/CTU (Reserve Airtime Request/Clear to Use) c. HA/RA (Hold Airtime/Reserved Airtime) d. RT/FT (Request Time/Fair Time) a 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 35. In an 802.11 data frame, what is the maximum amount of data that can be sent? a. 1500 bytes b. 2312 bytes c. 4582 bytes d. 9000 bytes b 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 36. Which of the following statements regarding the 802.11ac standard is NOT accurate? a. The standard was officially approved in early 2014. b. 802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch. c. 802.11ac access points can handle multiple transmissions at one time over the same frequency. d. 802.11ac operates on the 5-GHz band. b 1 802.11 WLAN Standards Multiple Choice 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 37. You are troubleshooting a client's wireless networking issue. Which of the following will prevent the client from connecting to the network? a. The client has a wireless profile configured for the "campus" SSID, but the access point is broadcasting the "CAMPUS" SSID. b. The client is using an 802.11n wireless adapter, but the access point only supports up to 802.11g. c. The client is using a network adapter with outdated firmware. d. The client is only able to get line of sight with an omnidirectional antenna. a 1 Troubleshooting Wi-Fi Networks Multiple Choice 6.6 - Troubleshoot a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 38. When troubleshooting wireless issues, what statement is accurate? a. A WPA key can be used to associate with a WEP configured access point. b. Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close. c. Simultaneous wired and wireless network connections do not affect the ability to communicate on the network. d. Access point power levels should always be configured to output as much power as possible. b 1 Troubleshooting Wi-Fi Networks Multiple Choice 6.6 - Troubleshoot a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 39. If you need to evaluate Wi-Fi network availability as well as optimize Wi-Fi signal settings and identify security threats, what tool should you use? a. spectrum analyzer b. protocol analyzer c. Wi-Fi analyzer d. air scanner c 1 Troubleshooting Wi-Fi Networks Multiple Choice 6.6 - Troubleshoot a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 40. Upon connecting to a Wi-Fi network, you're redirected to a login screen and a request to accept terms of service before being connected. What is this an example of? a. guest network profile b. captive portal c. WPA2-Enterprise d. browser hijacking b 1 Wi-Fi Network Security Multiple Choice 6.5 - Secure a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 41. What are some of the different types of wireless topologies that can be created? Some of the different types of wireless topologies are as follows: * ad hoc-A small number of nodes closely positioned transmit directly to each other without an intervening connectivity device. * infrastructure-An intervening connectivity device, a WAP (wireless access point) or AP (access point), accepts wireless signals from multiple nodes and retransmits them to the rest of the network. To cover its intended range, an access point must have sufficient power and be strategically placed so that all connected nodes can communicate with it. * mesh-Several access points work as peer devices on the same network, where the AP devices cooperate to provide more fault tolerant network access to clients. A wireless controller might be used only initially to configure the APs, or the APs might remain connected to the wireless controller for continued management. 1 Implementing a Wi-Fi Network Subjective Short Answer 6.4 - Implement a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 42. Describe the 802.11a standard, and detail some of its history and advantages / disadvantages versus other 802.11 standards. Although the 802.11a task group began its standards work before the 802.11b group, 802.11a was released after 802.11b. The higher throughput of 802.11a, as compared with 802.11b, is attributable to its use of higher frequencies, its unique method of modulating data, and more available bandwidth. Perhaps most significant is that the 5-GHz band is not as congested as the 2.4-GHz band. Thus, 802.11a signals are less likely to suffer interference from microwave ovens, cordless phones, motors, and other (incompatible) wireless LAN signals. However, higher-frequency signals require more power to transmit, and they travel shorter distances than lower-frequency signals. As a result, 802.11a networks require a greater density of access points between the wired LAN and wireless clients to cover the same distance that 802.11b networks cover. The additional access points, as well as the nature of 802.11a equipment, make this standard more expensive than either 802.11b or 802.11g. For this and other reasons, 802.11a is rarely preferred. 1 Difficult 802.11 WLAN Standards Subjective Short Answer 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 43. What is the hidden node problem, and how can it be mitigated? The hidden node problem occurs where a node is not visible to other nodes on the other side of a coverage area. One way to ensure that packets are not inhibited by other transmissions is to reserve the medium for one station's use. In 802.11, this can be accomplished through the optional RTS/CTS (Request to Send/Clear to Send) protocol. RTS/CTS enables a source node to issue an RTS signal to an access point requesting the exclusive opportunity to transmit. If the access point agrees by responding with a CTS signal, the access point temporarily suspends communication with all stations in its range and waits for the source node to complete its transmission. 1 Difficult 802.11 WLAN Standards Subjective Short Answer 6.3 - Explain 802.11 standards and innovations 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 44. Most wireless devices use one of two technologies to avoid interference. What are these technologies? The two technologies used are as follows: * FHSS (frequency hopping spread spectrum)-Short bursts of data are transmitted on a particular frequency within the band and the next burst goes to the next frequency in the sequence. Frequency hopping can happen hundreds of times a second. FHSS is cheaper to implement than DSSS and performs better than DSSS in crowded, indoor environments. * DSSS (direct sequence spread spectrum)-Data streams are divided and encoded into small chunks, called chips, which are spread over all available frequencies within one of three, wide channels, all at the same time. The process of dividing and encoding the data is called chipping, and the spreading ratio used to transform the data is called the chipping code, which is unique to each device. DSSS uses the available bandwidth more efficiently than FHSS and tends to have a higher throughput. 1 Difficult Characteristics of Wireless Transmissions Subjective Short Answer 6.1 - Identify and describe various types of wireless networking characteristics 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 45. Radiation patterns can be used to classify antennas into what two basic categories? The two basic categories that antennas can be classified under are: * unidirectional antenna (also called a directional antenna)-Issues wireless signals along a single direction. This type is used when the source needs to communicate with one destination, as in a point-to-point link, or in a specific area. A satellite downlink (for example, the kind used to receive digital TV signals) uses directional antennas * omnidirectional antenna-Issues and receives wireless signals with equal strength and clarity in all directions. This type is used when many different receivers must be able to pick up the signal in many directions, or when the receiver's location is highly mobile. TV and radio stations use omnidirectional antennas, as do most towers that transmit cellular signals. 1 Difficult Characteristics of Wireless Transmissions Subjective Short Answer 6.1 - Identify and describe various types of wireless networking characteristics 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 46. Why should an access point not always utilize all the power it has for broadcasting wireless signals? Each access point's power level, or the strength of the signal the access point emits, should be optimized for the geographic area covered by that AP. Power levels that are too low will result in dropped signals as clients roam to the peripheral areas of the AP's range. However, maxed out power levels will result in too much overlap between AP coverage areas, causing clients from other coverage areas to attempt to connect with APs that are farther away but transmitting the stronger signal. 1 Difficult Troubleshooting Wi-Fi Networks Subjective Short Answer 6.6 - Troubleshoot a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 47. When deciding antenna types, why might the use of an omnidirectional antenna be inadvisable? You might think that omnidirectional antennas would nearly always be the best choice when setting up Wi-Fi coverage. The idea is to place the AP in the center of its coverage area, then send the signal out in all directions. However, in many situations, installing unidirectional antennas instead will enhance a signal's availability, directing the signal right where you need it while not wasting a signal in areas where you don't. For example, suppose a company installs an omnidirectional antenna near a factory's 30-foot high ceiling. Because the antenna's signal is broadcast in all directions from its location, distributing its signal strength in a spherical shape, the best possible signal would only be available to workers who could walk on the ceiling-obviously, that's not a viable situation. To be useful, the signal needs to be directed down to the floor. A unidirectional antenna, in this case, can be positioned up high and pointed down to create a dome-shaped coverage that spreads out as it nears the plant floor 1 Difficult Troubleshooting Wi-Fi Networks Subjective Short Answer 6.6 - Troubleshoot a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 2/2/2018 2:56 PM 48. What is the difference between war driving and war chalking? In war driving, a hacker searches for unprotected wireless networks by driving around with a laptop or smartphone configured to receive and capture wireless data transmissions. (The term is derived from the term war dialing, which is a similar tactic involving old, dial-up modems.) War driving is surprisingly effective for obtaining private information. War chalking occurs when a hacker discovers vulnerable access points, and makes this information public by drawing symbols with chalk on the sidewalk or wall within range of a wireless network. The symbols, patterned after marks that hobos devised to indicate hospitable places for food or rest, indicate the access point's SSID and whether it's secured. Alternatively, many websites offer maps of these open networks, as reported by war drivers. 1 Difficult Wi-Fi Network Security Subjective Short Answer 6.5 - Secure a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 49. How does configuration of wireless clients for wireless access in an enterprise environment differ from normal setup? In an enterprise environment, configuring clients for wireless access to the network can entail a much more involved, two-part process: * on-boarding-Users or network technicians install a specific app, called an agent, on a user's device, whether the device is a smartphone, laptop, or tablet. This gives the device trusted access to certain portions of the network. Access to email services, file-sharing services, and certain network administrative features might all be controlled by the device's permission levels enabled by on-boarding that device. * off-boarding-The reverse procedure involves removing the agent. For security purposes, network administrators need a feature that allows them to do this remotely, in case a device is lost or stolen. This feature, called a remote wipe, clears a device of all important information, permissions, and apps without having physical access to the device. It might even allow you to completely disable the device, making any network or data access impossible. 1 Difficult Implementing a Wi-Fi Network Subjective Short Answer 6.4 - Implement a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 50. Why should the WPS PIN feature be avoided if possible? WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup) is a user-friendly but not very secure-security setting available on some consumer-grade APs. Part of the security involves requiring a PIN (personal identification number) in order to access the AP's settings or to associate a new device with the network. The problem is that the PIN can be easily cracked through a brute force attack, which means simply trying numerous possible character combinations to find the correct combination. This gives the attacker access to the network's WPA2 key. 1 Difficult Wi-Fi Network Security Subjective Short Answer 6.5 - Secure a Wi-Fi network 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1/27/2018 1:21 PM 1. An enterprise-wide VPN can include elements of both the client-to-site and site-to-site models. a. b. 1 Remote Access / 7.2 - Describe cloud computing categories and models, and discuss concerns regarding cloud connectivity and security 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 2. After L2TP establishing a VPN tunnel, GRE is used to transmit L2TP data frames through the tunnel. a. b. 1 Remote Access / 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 3. PPP can support several types of Network layer protocols that might use the connection. a. b. 1 Remote Access / 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 4. A community cloud is a service shared between multiple organizations, but not available publicly. a. b. 1 Cloud Computing / 7.2 - Describe cloud computing categories and models, and discuss concerns regarding cloud connectivity and security 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 5. A Type 2 hypervisor installs on a computer before any OS, and is therefore called a bare-metal hypervisor. a. b. 1 Virtualization / 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 6. Office 365 is an example of an SaaS implementation with a subscription model. a. b. 1 Cloud Computing / 7.2 - Describe cloud computing categories and models, and discuss concerns regarding cloud connectivity and security 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 7. Digital certificates are issued, maintained, and validated by an organization called a certificate authority (CA). a. b. 1 Cloud Computing / 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 8. The HTTPS (HTTP Secure) protocol utilizes the same TCP port as HTTP, port 80. a. b. 1 Encryption Protocols / 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 9. FTPS (FTP Security or FTP Secure) and SFTP (Secure FTP) are two names for the same protocol. a. b. 1 Remote Access / 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 10. The Virtual Network Computing (VNC) application uses the cross-platform remote frame buffer (RFB) protocol. a. b. 1 Remote Access / 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 11. Which type of cloud service model involves hardware services that are provided virtually, including network infrastructure devices such as virtual servers? a. IaaS b. PaaS c. SaaS d. XaaS a 1 Cloud Computing Multiple Choice 7.2 - Describe cloud computing categories and models, and discuss concerns regarding cloud connectivity and security 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 12. What cloud service model involves providing applications through an online user interface, providing for compatibility with a multitude of different operating systems and devices? a. IaaS b. SaaS c. XaaS d. PaaS b 1 Cloud Computing Multiple Choice 7.2 - Describe cloud computing categories and models, and discuss concerns regarding cloud connectivity and security 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 13. What type of scenario would be best served by using a Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud model? a. A group of developers needs access to multiple operating systems and the runtime libraries that the OS provides. b. An organization wishes to gain access to applications through an online user interface, while maintaining compatibility across operating systems. c. An organization needs to have a hosted virtual network infrastructure for their services, which are run on virtual machines. d. A small organization needs to have high availability for their web server. a 1 Cloud Computing Multiple Choice 7.2 - Describe cloud computing categories and models, and discuss concerns regarding cloud connectivity and security 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 14. When using public and private keys to connect to an SSH server from a Linux device, where must your public key be placed before you can connect? a. In an authorization file under your home directory on your computer. b. In an authorization file on the host where the SSH server is. c. In the /etc/ssh/keys folder. d. In the /var/run/ssh/public folder. b 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 15. The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below? a. key set b. key team c. key pair d. key tie c 1 Encryption Protocols Multiple Choice 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 16. What security encryption protocol requires regular re-establishment of a connection and can be used with any type of TCP/IP transmission? a. L2TP b. TLS c. IPsec d. SSL c 1 Encryption Protocols Multiple Choice 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 17. At what layer of the OSI model does the IPsec encryption protocol operate? a. Physical layer b. Network layer c. Transport layer d. Application layer b 1 Encryption Protocols Multiple Choice 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 18. The PPP headers and trailers used to create a PPP frame that encapsulates Network layer packets vary between 8 and 10 bytes in size due to what field? a. priority b. FCS c. FEC d. encryption b 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 19. When using a site-to-site VPN, what type of device sits at the edge of the LAN and establishes the connection between sites? a. VPN proxy b. VPN server c. VPN transport d. VPN gateway d 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 20. Amazon and Rackspace both utilize what virtualization software below to create their cloud environments? a. VMware vSphere b. Oracle VirtualBox c. Parallels d. Citrix Xen d 1 Cloud Computing Multiple Choice 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 21. What open-source VPN protocol utilizes OpenSSL for encryption and has the ability to possibly cross firewalls where IPsec might be blocked? a. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) b. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) c. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) d. OpenVPN d 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 22. VMware Player and Linux KVM are both examples of what type of hypervisor? a. Type 1 hypervisor b. Type 2 hypervisor c. barebones hypervisor d. bare-metal hypervisor b 1 Virtualization Multiple Choice 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 23. Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate? a. The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN. b. The vNIC will be assigned a NAT-ed IP address. c. The vNIC will only be able to communicate across the bridge to the host PC. d. The vNIC will utilize the host PC's IP address. a 1 Virtualization Multiple Choice 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 24. When is it appropriate to utilize the NAT network connection type? a. Only when the VM requires an IP address on the physical LAN. b. Whenever the VM does not need to be access at a known address by other network nodes. c. Only if the VM does not need to communicate with the host PC. d. Only if the VM is intended for VM-to-host communications. b 1 Virtualization Multiple Choice 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 25. By default, what network connection type is selected when creating a VM in VMware, VirtualBox, or KVM? a. host-only mode b. bridged mode c. NAT mode d. lockdown mode c 1 Virtualization Multiple Choice 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 26. Which statement regarding the IKEv2 tunneling protocol is accurate? a. IKEv2 is an older, Layer 2 protocol developed by Microsoft that encapsulates VPN data frames. b. IKEv2 is based on technology developed by Cisco and standardized by the IETF. c. IKEv2 is an open-source VPN protocol that utilizes OpenSSL for encryption. d. IKEv2 offers fast throughput and good stability when moving between wireless hotspots. d 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 27. The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users is known by what term? a. public-key organization b. certified infrastructure c. public-key infrastructure d. symmetric identification c 1 Encryption Protocols Multiple Choice 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 28. What is NOT a potential disadvantage of utilizing virtualization? a. Multiple virtual machines contending for finite resources can compromise performance. b. Increased complexity and administrative burden can result from the use of virtual machines. c. Licensing costs can be high due to every instance of commercial software requiring a separate license. d. Virtualization software increases the complexity of backups, making creation of usable backups difficult. d 1 Difficult Virtualization Multiple Choice 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 29. A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 4 d. Layer 7 b 1 Virtualization Multiple Choice 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 30. Which of the following virtualization products is an example of a bare-metal hypervisor? a. Citrix XenServer b. VirtualBox c. VMware Player d. Linux KVM a 1 Virtualization Multiple Choice 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 31. In a software defined network, what is responsible for controlling the flow of data? a. flow director b. vRouter c. SDN controller d. SDN switch c 1 Virtualization Multiple Choice 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 32. What term is used to describe a space that is rented at a data center facility by a service provider? a. point of presence (PoP) b. service location (SL) c. central service point (CSP) d. locally exchanged data point (ledp) a 1 Cloud Computing Multiple Choice 7.2 - Describe cloud computing categories and models, and discuss concerns regarding cloud connectivity and security 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 33. Which of the following statements regarding the Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol is NOT accurate? a. PPP can negotiate and establish a connection between two endpoints. b. PPP can utilize an authentication protocol, such as MS-CHAPv2 or EAP to authenticate a client. c. PPP can support several Network layer protocols, such as IP, that might use the connection. d. PPP can support strong encryption, such as AH or ESP. d 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 34. Why is the telnet utility a poor choice for remote access to a device? a. It provides no mechanism for authentication. b. It does not allow for control of a computer remotely. c. It cannot be used over a public WAN connection. d. It provides poor authentication and no encryption. d 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 35. What statement regarding the SSH (Secure Shell) collection of protocols is accurate? a. SSH provides a graphical view of the remote computer. b. SSH does not protect against DNS spoofing. c. SSH does not protect against IP spoofing. d. SSH supports port forwarding. d 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 36. In order to generate a public and private key for use with SSH, what command line utility should you use? a. ssh-keygen b. key-generate c. ssh-newkey d. gpg --ssh a 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 37. Regarding VNC (Virtual Network Computing or Virtual Network Connection), what statement is accurate? a. VNC is faster than Remote Desktop, and requires less network bandwidth. b. VNC is open source, allowing companies to develop their own software based on VNC. c. VNC uses the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). d. VNC is a standard developed by Microsoft and used by Windows Remote Desktop. b 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 38. Which file transfer protocol has no authentication or security for transferring files, uses UDP, and requires very little memory to use? a. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) b. FTP Secure (FTPS) c. Secure FTP (SFTP) d. Trivial FTP (TFTP) d 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 39. What special enterprise VPN supported by Cisco devices creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels? a. Dynamic Multipoint VPN b. Dynamic SmartVPN c. Symmetric VPN Autodial d. Auto Switched VPN Service a 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 40. Which of the following is NOT a task that a VPN concentrator is responsible for? a. A VPN concentrator authenticates VPN clients. b. A VPN concentrator establishes tunnels for VPN connections. c. A VPN concentrator shuts down established connections with malicious traffic occurs. d. A VPN concentrator manages encryption for VPN transmissions. c 1 Remote Access Multiple Choice 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 41. How does public key encryption work? In public key encryption, data is encrypted with a private key known only to the user, and decrypted with a mathematically related public key that can be made available through a third-party source, such as a public key server. This ensures data integrity, as the sender's public key will only work if the data has not been tampered with. Alternatively, data can be encrypted with the public key, and then can only be decrypted with the matching private key. This ensures data confidentiality, as only the intended recipient (the owner of the keys) can decrypt the data. A public key server is a publicly accessible host (such as a server on the Internet) that freely provides a list of users' public keys, much as a telephone book provides a list of peoples' phone numbers. The combination of a public key and a private key is known as a key pair. 1 Difficult Encryption Protocols Subjective Short Answer 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 42. Describe the TLS/SSL handshake process as initiated by a web client accessing a secure website. Given the scenario of a browser accessing a secure Web site, the SSL/TLS handshake works as follows 1. The browser, representing the client computer in this scenario, sends a client_hello message to the Web server, which contains information about what level of security the browser is capable of accepting and what type of encryption the browser can decipher. The client_hello message also establishes a randomly generated number that uniquely identifies the client and another number that identifies the SSL session. 2. The server responds with a server_hello message that confirms the information it received from the browser and agrees to certain terms of encryption based on the options supplied by the browser. Depending on the Web server' s preferred encryption method, the server may choose to issue to the browser a public key or a digital certificate. 3. If the server requests a certificate from the browser, the browser sends it. Any data the browser sends to the server is encrypted using the server' s public key. Session keys used only for this one session are also established. 1 Difficult Encryption Protocols Subjective Short Answer 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 43. What is the difference between a virtual firewall and a software firewall? A software firewall is merely an application, like Windows Firewall. It's very limited in scope and features, and only services a single client. A dedicated firewall device, such as those made by Fortinet, Cisco, or Palo Alto Networks, services an entire network (or portion of a network). It has many more features than a firewall app, and runs on its own OS. A virtual firewall emulates a hardware firewall, and is hosted in a virtualized environment. An example would be the pfSense VMware Ready Virtual Firewall Appliance by Netgate. Another example is Barracuda's NextGen Firewall F-Series, which is compatible with VMware, XenServer, KVM, and Hyper-V and also provides protection for cloud-based portions of the network. There must be a hypervisor present (usually Type 1) for a virtual firewall to exist. 1 Difficult Virtualization Subjective Short Answer 7.1 - Describe and explain virtualization technologies, including how virtual machines connect with a network and how networking infrastructure devices can be virtualized 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 44. When deploying cloud services, what are some of the deployment models you might encounter? The main deployment models you are likely to encounter are: * public cloud-Service provided over public transmission lines, such as the Internet. * private cloud-Service established on an organization's own servers in its own data center, or established virtually for a single organization's private use and made available to users over a WAN connection through some type of remote access. If hosted internally, this arrangement allows an organization to use existing hardware and connectivity, potentially saving money. If hosted virtually, the organization benefits from the usual advantages of virtual services, such as scalability and accessibility. * community cloud-Service shared between multiple organizations, but not available publicly. Organizations with common interests, such as regulatory requirements, performance requirements, or data access, might share resources in this way. For example, a medical database might be made accessible to all hospitals in a geographic area. In that case, the community cloud could be hosted internally by one or more of the organizations involved, or hosted by a third-party provider. But it would not be made available to the public. * hybrid cloud-A combination of the other service models into a single deployment, or a collection of services connected within the cloud. In the real world, the hybrid cloud infrastructure is a common result of transitory solutions. (In IT, "solution" refers to a product, service, or combination of products and services, and often includes extra features such as ongoing customer service.) An example of a hybrid cloud by design might arise when a company stores data in a private cloud, but uses a public cloud email service. 1 Difficult Cloud Computing Subjective Short Answer 7.2 - Describe cloud computing categories and models, and discuss concerns regarding cloud connectivity and security 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 45. What are some of the features that all cloud services usually have in common? Cloud services usually have the following features in common: * on-demand-Services, applications, and storage in a cloud are available to users at any time, upon the user's request. * cross-platform-Clients of all types, including smartphones, laptops, desktops, thin clients, and tablet computers, can access services, applications, and storage in a cloud, no matter what operating system they run or where they are located, as long as they have a network connection. * consolidated-Host computers in the cloud provide multiple virtual machines, resources such as disk space, applications, and services that are pooled, or consolidated. For example, a single cloud computing provider can host hundreds of websites for hundreds of different customers on just a few servers. This is called a multi-tenant service model. * metered-Everything offered by a cloud computing provider, including applications, desktops, storage, and other services, is measured. A provider might limit or charge by the amount of bandwidth, processing power, storage space, or client connections available to customers. * elastic-Services and storage capacity can be quickly and dynamically-sometimes even automatically-scaled up or down. In other words, they are elastic. The elasticity of cloud computing means that storage space can be increased or reduced, and that applications and clients can be added or removed, as needed. For example, if your database server in the cloud is running out of hard disk space, you can upgrade your subscription to expand it yourself, without your having to alert the service provider. The amount of space you can add and the flexibility with which it can be added depend on your agreement with the service provider. 1 Difficult Cloud Computing Subjective Short Answer 7.2 - Describe cloud computing categories and models, and discuss concerns regarding cloud connectivity and security 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 46. How is the CIA triad used to evaluate encryption methods? To protect data at rest, in use, and in motion, encryption methods are primarily evaluated by three benchmarks: * confidentiality-Data can only be viewed by its intended recipient or at its intended destination. * integrity-Data is not modified in the time after the sender transmits it and before the receiver picks it up. * availability-Data is available and accessible to the intended recipient when needed, meaning the sender is accountable for successful delivery of the data. Together, these three principles form the standard security model called the CIA (confidentiality, integrity, and availability) triad. 1 Difficult Encryption Protocols Subjective Short Answer 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 47. Why is the DTLS (Datagram Transport Layer Security) protocol used for streaming applications that need security? DTLS is a variant of TLS that is designed specifically for streaming communications. As the name implies, DTLS relies on UDP instead of TCP, which minimizes delays. However, applications using DTLS must provide their own means of packet reordering, flow control, and reliability assurance. DTLS includes security levels that are comparable to TLS and is commonly used by delay-sensitive applications such as VoIP and tunneling applications such as VPN. 1 Difficult Encryption Protocols Subjective Short Answer 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 48. What two different types of encryption can be utilized with IPsec? Data encrypted for use with an IPsec connection may utilize either AH (authentication header) encryption or ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) encryption. Both types of encryption provide authentication of the IP packet's data payload through public key techniques. In addition, ESP encrypts the entire IP packet for added security. 1 Difficult Encryption Protocols Subjective Short Answer 7.3 - Secure network connections using encryption protocols 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 49. All types of remote access techniques connecting to a network require at least one of what two different types of remote access server? There are two types of remote access servers: * dedicated devices-Devices such as Cisco's AS5800 access servers are dedicated solely as an RAS to run software that, in conjunction with their operating system, performs authentication for clients. An ISP might use a dedicated device to authenticate client computers or home routers to access the ISP resources and the Internet. * software running on a server-The remote access service might run under a network operating system to allow remote logon to a corporate network. For example, DirectAccess is a service first introduced in Windows Server 2008 R2 that can automatically authenticate remote users and computers to the Windows domain and its corporate network resources. 1 Difficult Remote Access Subjective Short Answer 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 50. What is the PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol), and how does it work? PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) is a Data Link layer protocol that directly connects two WAN endpoints. One example might be when a DSL or cable modem connects to a server at the ISP. PPP headers and trailers create a PPP frame that encapsulates Network layer packets. The frames total only 8 or 10 bytes, the difference depending on the size of the FCS field (recall that the FCS field ensures the data is received intact). 1 Difficult Remote Access Subjective Short Answer 7.4 - Configure remote access connections between devices 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1/27/2018 1:23 PM 1. Network segmentation decreases both performance and security on a network. a. b. 1 Subnets and VLANs / 8.1 - Explain the purposes of network segmentation 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 2. Only Class B and Class C networks can be subnetted. a. b. 1 Subnets / 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 3. By default, the native VLAN is the same as the default VLAN. a. b. 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) / 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 4. A native VLAN mismatch occurs when two access ports that are connected to each other are both tagging traffic with different VLAN IDs. a. b. 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) / 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 5. All that is needed to provide communication between two VLANs is a DHCP relay agent. a. b. 1 Subnets / 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 6. Network segmentation at Layer 2 of the OSI model is accomplished using VLANs. a. b. 1 Network Segmentation / 8.1 - Explain the purposes of network segmentation 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 7. A /24 CIDR block is equivalent to a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask. a. b. 1 Subnets / 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 8. IPv6 addressing does not utilize classful addressing, therefore every IPv6 address is classless. a. b. 1 Subnets / 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 9. An unmanaged switch can still support the creation of VLANs, provided there is an interface for configuration. a. b. 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) / 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 10. In order to identify the transmissions that belong to each VLAN, a switch will add a tag to Ethernet frames that identifies the port through which they arrive at the switch. a. b. 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) / 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 11. A network with a CIDR notation of /26 would have what subnet mask? a. 255.255.255.0 b. 255.255.255.192 c. 255.255.255.224 d. 255.255.255.240 b 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 12. A network with 10 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses? a. 510 b. 1022 c. 2046 d. 4192 b 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 13. An interface that manages traffic from multiple VLANs is known by what term? a. access port b. aggregation port c. trunk port d. egress port b 1 VLANs( Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 14. Which of the following suggestions can help prevent VLAN hopping attacks on a network? a. Install an additional switch to isolate traffic. b. Disable auto trunking and move native VLANs to unused VLANs. c. Install a router to process the untagged traffic on the VLAN. d. Use MAC address filtering. b 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 15. With VTP, where is the VLAN database stored? a. On the router responsible for maintaining the VTP database. b. On the switch that is known as the stack master. c. On the switch that is configured as the trunk root. d. On the designated VLAN server for the network. b 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 16. What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information? a. 802.1c b. 802.1Q c. 802.1V d. 802.1d b 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 17. In an IPv6 address, what do the first four blocks or 64 bits of the address represent? a. The usable host portion of the network. b. The site prefix or global routing prefix. c. The broadcast domain for the configured host ID. d. The MAC address of the router assigning the host ID. b 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 18. On certain Cisco products, what command can be used to create and send helper messages that support several types of UDP traffic, including DHCP, TFTP, DNS, and TACACS+? a. ip create helper server b. ip new helper c. set ip helper address d. ip helper-address d 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 19. When an 802.1Q tag is added to an Ethernet frame, where is it placed? a. It is inserted between the preamble and the destination address. b. It is inserted between the destination and the source addresses. c. It is inserted between the source address and the Ethernet type field. d. It is appended to the end of the frame. c 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 20. How large is the 802.1Q tag that is added to an Ethernet frame when using VLANs? a. 4 bytes b. 8 bytes c. 12 bytes d. 20 bytes a 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 21. On a Cisco switch, what would the security association identifier be for VLAN 13? a. 1013 b. 5013 c. 100013 d. 1000130 c 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 22. What command will set the native VLAN on a Juniper switch port? a. switchport trunk native vlan b. switchport set native vlan c. config native vlan d. set native-vlan-id d 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 23. You are working on a Cisco switch and need to learn what VLANs exist on the switch. Which command will list the current VLANs recognized by the switch? a. get vlans b. show vlan c. list switch-vlans d. show vlandb b 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 24. Given a host IP address of 172.16.1.154 and a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0, what is the network ID for this host? a. 172.16.0.0 b. 172.16.1.0 c. 172.16.2.0 d. 172.0.0.0 a 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 25. What is the maximum number of host IP addresses that can exist in a Class B network? a. 1022 b. 8190 c. 32,766 d. 65,534 d 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 26. Which of the following terms is commonly used to describe a VLAN configuration in which one router connects to a switch that supports multiple VLANs? a. router-on-a-stick b. branched router c. router overloading d. router-on-a-branch a 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 27. When dealing with a Cisco switch, what is NOT one of the pre-established VLANs? a. VLAN 1 b. VLAN 1001 c. VLAN 1003 d. VLAN 1005 b 1 Difficult VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 28. A subnet of 255.255.248.0 can be represented by what CIDR notation? a. /18 b. /20 c. /21 d. /29 c 1 Difficult Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 29. When using IPv6, what would a /64 network likely be assigned to? a. A regional Internet registry. b. A large Internet service provider. c. A very large organization. d. A smaller organization or business. d 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 30. What does the VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) do? a. It shares trunking information amongst switches that participate. b. It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate. c. It is the protocol used by a trunk port for establishing a trunk with another switch. d. It is the protocol that defines how VLAN tagging is accomplished in an Ethernet network. b 1 VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Multiple Choice 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 31. Which of the following statements regarding IPv6 subnetting is NOT accurate? a. IPv6 addressing uses no classes, and is therefore classless. b. IPv6 does not use subnet masks. c. A single IPv6 subnet is capable of supplying 18,446,744,073,709,551,616 IPv6 addresses. d. The largest IPv6 subnet capable of being created is a /64. d 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 32. If the EUI-64 standard is used, what part of an IPv6 address is affected? a. The first four blocks of the address. b. The last four blocks of the address. c. The middle four blocks of the address. d. All blocks of the address are affected. b 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 33. How many /64 subnets can be created within a /56 prefix? a. 256 b. 512 c. 1024 d. 2048 a 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 34. What is NOT one of the ways in which networks are commonly segmented? a. by geographic location b. by departmental boundaries c. by device types d. by device manufacturer d 1 Network Segmentation Multiple Choice 8.1 - Explain the purposes of network segmentation 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 35. An IP address of 192.168.18.73/28 has what network ID? a. 192.168.16.0 b. 192.168.18.64 c. 192.168.18.32 d. 192.168.18.0 b 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 36. Subtracting an interesting octet value from 256 yields what number? a. network ID b. subnet ID c. magic number d. host ID c 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 37. You have been tasked with the creation and design of a network that must support a minimum of 5000 hosts. Which network accomplishes this goal? a. 10.3.0.0/19 b. 172.20.50.0/23 c. 192.168.0.0/20 d. 10.90.0.0/22 a 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 38. How many subnets can a /48 site prefix support? a. 256 subnets b. 16384 subnets c. 65,536 subnets d. 131,072 subnets c 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 39. By default, when using classful addressing, how many bits exist in the host portion of a Class A address? a. 8 b. 16 c. 24 d. 32 c 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 40. What subnet mask can be used to segment the 172.16.0.0 network to allow for a minimum of 6 subnets while maximizing the number of hosts per subnet? a. 255.255.248.0 b. 255.255.224.0 c. 255.255.192.0 d. 255.255.128.0 b 1 Subnets Multiple Choice 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 41. What are some of the different reasons to use VLANs? Reasons for using VLANs include: * You wish to isolate connections with heavy or unpredictable traffic patterns, such as when separating heavy VoIP traffic from other network activities. * You want to identify groups of devices whose data should be given priority handling, such as executive client devices or an ICS (industrial control system) that manages a refrigeration system or a gas pipeline. * You want to contain groups of devices that rely on legacy protocols incompatible with the majority of the network's traffic, such as a legacy SCADA (supervisory control and data acquisition) system monitoring an oil refinery. * You wish to separate groups of users who need special or limited security or network functions, such as when setting up a guest network. * You are configuring temporary networks, such as when making specific network resources available to a short-term project team. * You intend to reduce the cost of networking equipment, such as when upgrading a network design to include additional departments or new types of network traffic. 1 Difficult VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Subjective Short Answer 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 42. What is the difference between a default VLAN and a native VLAN? A default VLAN is typically preconfigured on a switch and initially includes all the switch's ports. Other VLANs might be preconfigured as well, depending on the device and manufacturer. The default VLAN cannot be renamed or deleted; however, ports in the default VLAN can be reassigned to other VLANs. A native VLAN receives all untagged frames from untagged ports. By default, this is the same as the default VLAN. However, this configuration poses a security risk when untagged traffic is allowed to travel in a VLAN-managed network. To protect the network from unauthorized traffic, the native VLAN should be changed to an unused VLAN so that untagged traffic essentially runs into a dead-end. Each switch port can be configured for a different native VLAN. However, switch ports on each end of a trunk should agree on the native VLAN assignment. If the ports don't agree, this is called a native VLAN mismatch, or just VLAN mismatch, and will result in a configuration error. 1 Difficult VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Subjective Short Answer 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 43. How do unmanaged switches and managed switches differ from each other? An unmanaged switch provides plug-and-play simplicity with minimal configuration options and has no IP address assigned to it. Unmanaged switches are not very expensive, but their capabilities are limited and they cannot support VLANs. Managed switches, on the other hand, can be configured via a command-line interface or a web-based management GUI, and sometimes can be configured in groups. Usually, they are also assigned IP addresses for the purpose of continued management. VLANs can only be implemented through managed switches, whose ports can be partitioned into groups. 1 Difficult VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Subjective Short Answer 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 44. When a hacker attempts to perform a VLAN hopping attack, what are the two approaches likely to be used? The two approaches the hacker might use for VLAN hopping are as follows: * double tagging-The hacker stacks VLAN tags in Ethernet frames. When the first, legitimate tag is removed by a switch, the second, illegitimate tag is revealed, tricking a switch into forwarding the transmission on to a restricted VLAN. * switch spoofing-An attacker connects to a switch and then makes the connection look to the switch as if it's a trunk line. The switch might autoconfigure its port into trunk mode when it detects trunk mode on the other end of the connection. A hacker can then feed his own VLAN traffic into that port and access VLANs throughout the network. 1 Difficult VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Subjective Short Answer 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 45. What is a Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM), and how is it created? Traditional subnetting reduces the waste of IP addresses, but results in multiple subnets that are all the same size. This uniformity in subnet size can be inefficient in complex networks. VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Mask) allows subnets to be further subdivided into smaller and smaller groupings until each subnet is about the same size as the necessary IP address space. This is often referred to as "subnetting a subnet." To create VLSM subnets, you create the largest subnet first. Then you create the next largest subnet, and the next one and so on, until you have divided up all the remaining space. In this way, you ensure that the largest subnets get the space they need, and the smallest subnets are also sized appropriately. 1 Difficult Subnets Subjective Short Answer 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 46. How does the logical process of combining bits known as ANDing work? In ANDing, a bit with a value of 1 combined, or anded, with another bit with a value of 1 results in a 1. A bit with a value of 0 anded with any other bit results in a 0. If you think of 1 as "" and 0 as "," the logic of ANDing makes sense: ANDing a statement to a statement still results in a statement. But ANDing a statement to a statement results in a statement. 1 Difficult Subnets Subjective Short Answer 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 47. In 1993, the IETF devised a shorthand method for identifying network and host bits in an IP address. What is this method, and how do you use it? The method is known as CIDR (Classless Interdomain Routing) notation, or slash notation. CIDR notation takes the network ID or a host's IP address and follows it with a forward slash (/), which is then followed by the number of bits that are used for the network ID. For example, this private IP address could be written as 192.168.89.127/24, where 24 represents the number of 1s in the subnet mask and therefore the number of bits in the network ID. In CIDR terminology, the forward slash, plus the number of bits used for the network ID-for example, /24-is known as a CIDR block. 1 Difficult Subnets Subjective Short Answer 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 48. How does a DHCP relay agent allow a centrally managed DHCP server to handle assignments for multiple subnets? A centrally managed DHCP server can provide DHCP assignments to multiple subnets (and VLANs) with the help of a DHCP relay agent. The following steps describe this process: Step 1-A router, firewall, or Layer 3 switch programmed to support relay agent software receives the DHCP request from a client in one of its local broadcast domains. Step 2-The Layer 3 device creates a message of its own and routes this transmission to the specified DHCP server in a different broadcast domain. Step 3-The DHCP server notes the relay agent's IP address and assigns the DHCP client an IP address on the same subnet. 1 Difficult Subnets Subjective Short Answer 8.2 - Calculate and implement subnets 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 49. Where does the term trunk originate from, and how does it apply to modern networking? A single switch can support traffic belonging to several VLANs across the network, thanks to the technique known as trunking. The term trunk originated in the telephony field, where it refers to an aggregation of logical connections over one physical connection. For example, a trunk carries signals for many residential telephone lines in the same neighborhood over one cable. Similarly, in the context of switching, a trunk is a single physical connection between networking devices through which many logical VLANs can transmit and receive data. 1 Difficult VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Subjective Short Answer 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 50. What are some common configuration errors that can occur when configuring VLANs? Some of the common configuration errors that can occur are as follows: * incorrect port mode-Switch ports connected to endpoints, such as workstations and servers, should nearly always use access mode. Switch ports connected to other network devices should be configured in trunk mode only if that connection must support multiple VLANs. * incorrect VLAN assignment-This can happen due to a variety of situations, including misconfigurations of the client authentication process in which a VLAN is assigned to the device before the authentication process is complete. * VLAN isolation-By grouping certain nodes into a VLAN, you are not merely including those nodes-you are also excluding other groups of nodes. This means you can potentially cut off an entire group from the rest of the network. VLANs must be connected to and configured on a router or Layer 3 switch to allow different VLANs to exchange data outside their own broadcast domain. 1 Difficult VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) Subjective Short Answer 8.3 - Explain how VLANs work and how they're used 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1/27/2018 1:29 PM 1. Different types of organizations have similar levels of network security risks. a. b. 1 Security Risks / 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 2. The term malware is derived from a combination of the words malicious and software. a. b. 1 Security Risks / 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 3. A hacker, in the original sense of the word, is someone with technical skill and malicious intent. a. b. 1 Security Risks / 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 4. The day after Patch Tuesday is informally dubbed Exploit Wednesday. a. b. 1 Security Risks / 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 5. A drop ceiling could be used by an intruder to gain access to a secured room. a. b. 1 Physical Security / 9.3 - Discuss physical security methods that prevent and detect intrusions 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 6. Over a long-distance connection, using SSH keys is more secure than using passwords. a. b. 1 Device Hardening / 9.4 - Configure devices on a network for increased security 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 7. The original version of the Secure Hash Algorithm was developed by MIT. a. b. 1 Device Hardening / 9.4 - Configure devices on a network for increased security 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 8. Sudden unexplained increases in file sizes and unusual error messages with no apparent cause are both potential symptoms of a viral infection. a. b. 1 Device Hardening / 9.4 - Configure devices on a network for increased security 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 9. Current research indicates that a long, random string of words, such as correct horse battery staple is more secure than a random series of letters, numbers, and symbols that is short enough to be remembered. a. b. 1 Security Policies for Users / 9.5 - Describe various security policies and explain how they can guide users' activities on a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 10. It is ideal to use the same password for multiple different applications, provided the password is complex enough. a. b. 1 Security Policies for Users / 9.5 - Describe various security policies and explain how they can guide users' activities on a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 11. What penetration testing tool combines known scanning and exploit techniques to explore potentially new attack routes? a. Nessus b. metasploit c. nmap d. Sub7 b 1 Security Assessment Multiple Choice 9.2 - Describe tools used to evaluate the security of a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 12. Which of the following statements correctly describes the malware characteristic of polymorphism? a. Polymorphic malware can change its characteristics every time it is transferred to a new system. b. Polymorphic malware is designed to activate on a particular date, remaining harmless until that time. c. Polymorphic malware is software that disguises itself as a legitimate program, or replaces a legitimate program's code with destructive code. d. Polymorphic malware utilizes encryption to prevent detection. a 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 13. A virus that remains dormant until a specific condition is met, such as the changing of a file or a match of the current date is known as what type of malware? a. encrypted virus b. logic bomb c. boot sector virus d. worm b 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 14. Which of the following statements describes a worm? a. A program that disguises itself as something useful but actually harms your system. b. A process that runs automatically, without requiring a person to start or stop it. c. A program that runs independently of other software and travels between computers and across networks. d. A program that locks a user's data or computer system until a ransom is paid. c 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 15. If multiple honeypots are connected to form a larger network, what term is used to describe the network? a. combolure b. lurenet c. honeycomb d. honeynet d 1 Security Assessment Multiple Choice 9.2 - Describe tools used to evaluate the security of a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 16. An attack that relies on redirected and captured secure transmissions as they occur is known as what type of attack? a. buffer overflow b. session hijacking attack c. man-in-the-middle attack d. banner-grabbing attack c 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 17. Which of the following scenarios represents a phishing attempt? a. An employee at your company has received a malware-infected file in their e-mail. b. A person posing as an employee tried to access a secured area at your organization. c. A gift was offered to an employee with access to secured information in exchange for details. d. An e-mail was sent to a manager at your company that appeared to be from the company's CTO, asking for access. d 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 18. In a red team-blue team exercise, what is the purpose of the blue team? a. The blue team is tasked with attacking the network. b. The blue team must observe the actions of the red team. c. The blue team is charged with the defense of the network. d. The blue team consists of regulators that ensure no illegal activity is undertaken. c 1 Security Assessment Multiple Choice 9.2 - Describe tools used to evaluate the security of a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 19. Which of the following utilities performs sophisticated vulnerability scans, and can identify unencrypted data such as credit card numbers? a. Nmap b. Nessus c. Metasploit d. L0phtcrack b 1 Security Assessment Multiple Choice 9.2 - Describe tools used to evaluate the security of a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 20. If someone is offered a free gift or service in exchange for private information or access to a computer system, what type of social engineering is taking place? a. phishing b. baiting c. quid pro quo d. tailgating c 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 21. A person posing as an employee strikes up a conversation with a legitimate employee as they walk into a secured area, in an attempt to gain access. What kind of social engineering is this? a. phishing b. baiting c. quid pro quo d. tailgating d 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 22. In the typical social engineering attack cycle, what occurs at Phase 3? a. The attacker researches the desired target for clues as to vulnerabilities. b. The attacker builds trust with the target and attempts to gain more information. c. The attacker exploits an action undertaken by the victim in order to gain access. d. The attacker executes an exit strategy in such a way that does not leave evidence or raise suspicion. c 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 23. The concept of giving employees and contractors only enough access and privileges to do their jobs is known by what term? a. least-risk privilege profile b. principle of least privilege c. minimal access/minimal exposure d. limited liability access b 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 24. What statement regarding denial-of-service (DoS) attacks is accurate? a. A denial-of-service attack occurs when a MAC address is impersonated on the network. b. A denial-of-service attack prevents legitimate users from accessing normal network resources. c. A denial-of-service attack is generally a result of a disgruntled employee. d. A denial-of-service attack is no longer a major concern due to the increased throughput available on most networks. b 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 25. Utilized by China's so-called "Great Firewall", what type of attack can prevent user access to web pages, or even redirect them to illegitimate web pages? a. MAC address spoofing b. denial-of-service attack c. DNS poisoning d. rogue DHCP server b 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 26. What is the Nmap utility used for? a. It is used to identify unsecured sensitive data on the network, such as credit cards. b. It is an automated vulnerability and penetration testing framework. c. It is a software firewall that can be used to secure a vulnerable host. d. It is a port scanning utility that can identify open ports on a host. d 1 Security Assessment Multiple Choice 9.2 - Describe tools used to evaluate the security of a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 27. How is a posture assessment performed on an organization? a. A thorough examination of each aspect of the organization's network is performed to determine how it might be compromised. b. A third party organization is tasked with attempting to break into the organization and compromise security in order to determine threat vectors. c. A report of data that is subject to special regulation is created, such that the organization is aware of what data needs protection. d. An assessment of how a network will perform under stress is performed to determine if the network throughput is adequate. a 1 Security Assessment Multiple Choice 9.2 - Describe tools used to evaluate the security of a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 28. What type of door access control is a physical or electronic lock that requires a code in order to open the door? a. key fob lock b. cipher lock c. biometric lock d. encrypted lock b 1 Physical Security Multiple Choice 9.3 - Discuss physical security methods that prevent and detect intrusions 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 29. An RFID label on a box is an example of what type of physical security detection method? a. motion detection technology b. video surveillance via CCTV c. tamper detection d. asset tracking tagging d 1 Physical Security Multiple Choice 9.3 - Discuss physical security methods that prevent and detect intrusions 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 30. What statement regarding the different versions of the SHA hashing algorithm is accurate? a. SHA-0 is the most secure version of SHA. b. SHA-1 supports a 128-bit hash function. c. SHA-2 only supports a 256-bit hash. d. SHA-2 and SHA-3 both support the same hash lengths. d 1 Device Hardening Multiple Choice 9.4 - Configure devices on a network for increased security 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 31. On a Linux based system, what command can you use to create a hash of a file using SHA-256? a. sha1sum b. md5sum c. sha256sum d. shasum -a 256 c 1 Device Hardening Multiple Choice 9.4 - Configure devices on a network for increased security 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 32. Which command can be used on a Windows system to create a hash of a file? a. md5 b. shasum c. Get-FileHash d. Compute-FileHash c 1 Device Hardening Multiple Choice 9.4 - Configure devices on a network for increased security 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 33. VMware's AirWatch and Cisco's Meraki Systems Manager are both examples of what type of software? a. mobile device management software b. software defined network software c. virtual device management software d. cloud network management software a 1 Security Policies for Users Multiple Choice 9.5 - Describe various security policies and explain how they can guide users' activities on a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 34. A variant of BYOD, what does CYOD allow employees or students to do? a. They can supply their own software on a computer or mobile device. b. They can supply their choice of cloud application or storage. c. They can choose a device from a limited number of options. d. They can use whatever devices they wish to bring. c 1 Security Policies for Users Multiple Choice 9.5 - Describe various security policies and explain how they can guide users' activities on a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 35. Where would restrictions regarding what users can and cannot do while accessing a network's resources be found? a. acceptable use policy document b. terms of service document c. license restrictions document d. non-disclosure agreement document a 1 Security Policies for Users Multiple Choice 9.5 - Describe various security policies and explain how they can guide users' activities on a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 36. What document addresses the specific concerns related to special access given to administrators and certain support staff? a. non-disclosure agreement b. acceptable use policy c. password policy d. privileged user agreement d 1 Security Policies for Users Multiple Choice 9.5 - Describe various security policies and explain how they can guide users' activities on a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 37. Which of the following scenarios would necessitate the use of a non-disclosure agreement? a. Your company wishes to educate users on the proper use of the network. b. Your company needs to prevent a new contractor from sharing information with a potential competitor. c. Your company needs to impose password restrictions on new users in the network. d. Your company would like to allow employees to bring their own devices. b 1 Security Policies for Users Multiple Choice 9.5 - Describe various security policies and explain how they can guide users' activities on a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 38. How often should you require users to change their passwords? a. every 30 days b. every 60 days c. every 90 days d. every 120 days b 1 Security Policies for Users Multiple Choice 9.5 - Describe various security policies and explain how they can guide users' activities on a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 39. What type of an attack forces clients off a wireless network, creating a form of Wi-Fi DoS? a. deauthentication attack b. channel hopping attack c. man-in-the-middle attack d. ARP poisoning attack a 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 40. Which type of DoS attack involves an attack that is bounced off uninfected computers before being directed at the target? a. cached denial-of-service attack b. distributed denial-of-service attack c. distributed reflection denial-of-service attack d. permanent denial-of-service attack c 1 Security Risks Multiple Choice 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 41. List and describe the four different locations in which anti-malware can be installed. When implementing anti-malware software on a network, one of your most important decisions is where to install the software. Some scenarios include: * host-based-If you install anti-malware software on every desktop, you have addressed the most likely point of entry, but ignored the most important files that might be infected-those on the server. * server-based-If the anti-malware software resides on the server and checks every file and transaction, you will protect important files, but slow your network performance considerably. * network-based-Securing the network's gateways, where the Internet connects with the interior network, can provide a formidable layer of defense against the primary source of intrusion-the Internet. However, this does nothing to prevent users from putting the network at risk with infected files on flash drives, laptops, or smartphones. * cloud-based-Many anti-malware solutions already employ cloud-based resources within their programming. And cloud-based anti-malware provides the same kinds of benefits as other cloud-based solutions, such as scalability, cost efficiency, and shred resources. These cloud vendors are still working out bugs, and it can be a challenge to ensure that coverage soaks the entire network with no blind spots. Cloud solutions also increase the amount of Internet traffic in order to perform their duties. 1 Difficult Device Hardening Subjective Short Answer 9.4 - Configure devices on a network for increased security 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 42. What are some of the characteristics of malware that make it difficult to detect? Some of the characteristics that make malware harder to detect and eliminate include the following: * encryption-Some malware is encrypted to prevent detection. Most antimalware software searches files for a recognizable string of characters that identify the virus. However, encryption can thwart the anti-malware program's attempts to detect it. * stealth-Some malware disguises itself as legitimate programs or replaces part of a legitimate program's code with destructive code. * polymorphism-Polymorphic malware changes its characteristics (such as the arrangement of bytes, size, and internal instructions) every time it's transferred to a new system, making it harder to identify. * time dependence-Some malware is programmed to activate on a particular date. This type of malware can remain dormant and harmless until its activation date arrives. Time-dependent malware can include logic bombs, or programs designed to start when certain conditions are met. (Logic bombs can also activate when other types of conditions, such as a specific change to a file, are met, and they are not always malicious.) 1 Difficult Security Risks Subjective Short Answer 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 43. Hackers are categorized according to their intent and the prior approval of the organizations whose networks they're hacking. What are some of these categories? Hackers may be categorized as follows: * white hat hacker-These IT security experts are hired by organizations to assess their security and risks. They're sometimes called ethical hackers. Their goal is to identify security vulnerabilities of all kinds so the organization can make changes to increase their security. The extent of their efforts is usually clearly defined in a written contract before they begin their testing, and their activities are limited by existing laws and restrictions. At no point is private data compromised outside of that trusted relationship. * black hat hacker-These groups or individuals use their skills to bypass security systems to cause damage, steal data, or compromise privacy. They're not concerned with legal restrictions, and are intent on achieving personal gain or executing a personal agenda against an individual or an organization. Some black hat hackers and groups are also available for hire to serve someone else's agenda. * gray hat hacker-These hackers abide by a code of ethics all their own. Although they might engage in illegal activity, their intent is to educate and assist. For example, a computer hobbyist who hacks a local business's weak Wi-Fi password, and then reports that weakness to the business owners without damaging or stealing the company's data, has engaged in gray hat hacking. Gray hats are vulnerable to legal prosecution, and therefore often go to a great deal of effort to remain anonymous. 1 Difficult Security Risks Subjective Short Answer 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 44. How does a zero-day exploit differ from a typical exploit? A zero-day exploit, or zero-day attack, is one that takes advantage of a software vulnerability that hasn't yet or has only very recently become public. Zero-day exploits are particularly dangerous because the vulnerability is exploited before the software developer has the opportunity to provide a solution for it or before the user applies the published solution. For example, Microsoft schedules regular security updates to Windows on the second Tuesday of each month, called Patch Tuesday. Hackers can use this information to identify unannounced vulnerabilities in Windows, and then immediately proceed to attack unpatched machines. 1 Difficult Security Risks Subjective Short Answer 9.1 - Identify people, technology, and malware security risks to a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 45. Why might an organization be required to undergo a security audit? Certain customers-for example, a military agency-might require your company to pass an accredited security audit before they'll do business with you. Regulators require some types of companies, such as accounting firms, to host periodic security audits. But even if an audit is optional, the advantage of having an objective third party analyze your network is that they might find risks you overlooked because of your familiarity with your environment. 1 Difficult Security Assessment Subjective Short Answer 9.2 - Describe tools used to evaluate the security of a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 46. What is vulnerability scanning, and what are the two different types of vulnerability scans? Vulnerability scanning is used to identify vulnerabilities in a network. It's often performed by a company's own staff, and does not attempt to exploit any vulnerabilities. Vulnerability scanning might also be the first step in other attack simulations or in a real attack. During attack simulations, there are two types of vulnerability scans: * authenticated-In this case, the attacker is given the same access to the network as a trusted user would have, such as an employee or an intruder who has somehow hacked into a user's account. * unauthenticated-In this case, the attacker begins on the perimeter of the network, looking for vulnerabilities that do not require trusted user privileges. 1 Difficult Security Assessment Subjective Short Answer 9.2 - Describe tools used to evaluate the security of a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 47. How is motion detection technology used to monitor and provide security for sensitive areas, and how can it deal with positives? Motion detection technology, which triggers an alarm when it detects movement within its field of view, has been around for a long time. Sensors are often found even in home security systems. The latest motion detectors can discern between different types of motion, such as small animals, blowing plants, or walking humans, to reduce alarms. Motion sensors might be configured to record date and time of motion detection, or trigger lights, alarms, or video cameras. 1 Difficult Physical Security Subjective Short Answer 9.3 - Discuss physical security methods that prevent and detect intrusions 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 48. When configuring a new device, why should changing the administrative credentials be a top priority? Most devices that can be configured through a management interface come with a default access account. Often, the username, if there is one, is something like "admin". The password might be "password," "admin," or "1234". Because these default credentials are so commonly used, they're also extremely insecure. Surprisingly, many network administrators-even in large organizations-never take the time to change these credentials to something more difficult to crack. 1 Difficult Device Hardening Subjective Short Answer 9.4 - Configure devices on a network for increased security 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 49. What is hashing, and how does it differ from encryption? Hashing means to transform data through an algorithm that generally reduces the amount of space needed for the data. Hashing is not the same thing as encryption, though it's often listed as a type of encryption and does, in a similar manner, transform data from one format to another. Encrypted data can be decrypted, but hashed data cannot. Hashing is mostly used to ensure data integrity-that is, to verify the data has not been altered, which is similar to the purpose of a checksum. 1 Difficult Device Hardening Subjective Short Answer 9.4 - Configure devices on a network for increased security 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 50. How is an acceptable use policy typically used? An AUP (acceptable use policy) explains to users what they can and cannot do while accessing a network's resources. It also explains penalties for violations, and might describe how these measures protect the network's security. Employers should never assume that employees inherently know what is acceptable use of company IT resources and what is not. Detailing this information clarifies expectations for everyone. Some of the restrictions might include the following: * Don't do anything illegal. * Don't try to circumvent network security restrictions. * Don't market products or services to other network users. * Don't forward spam e-mail. * Don't violate the rights of any person or organization. * Don't violate copyright, trade secret, patent, intellectual property, or other regulations. * Don't export software, technical information, or encryption technology. * Always sign off or lock a device when not in use. * Use company resources to fulfill job obligations, and not for personal tasks. * Be aware that activities on the network can be and are monitored and may be formally audited. * Immediately report any suspected compromise of confidential data or customer privacy. 1 Difficult Security Policies for Users Subjective Short Answer 9.5 - Describe various security policies and explain how they can guide users' activities on a network 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1/27/2018 1:33 PM 1. Proxy servers and ACLs on network devices are examples of non-security devices with security features, while firewalls and IDS/IPS systems are the network's specialized security devices. a. b. 1 Network Security Devices / 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 2. A stateless firewall inspects each incoming packet to determine whether it belongs to a currently active connection. a. b. 1 Network Security Devices / 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 3. The Spanning Tree Protocol operates at the Network layer of the OSI model. a. b. 1 Switch Management / 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 4. The storm-control command is a type of flood guard that is available on most major network switch vendor platforms. a. b. 1 Switch Management / 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 5. User access to network resources falls into one of these two categories: 1) the privilege or right to execute, install, and uninstall software, and 2) permission to read, modify, create, or delete data files and folders. a. b. 1 AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) / 10.3 - Track the processes of authentication, authorization, and auditing on a network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 6. Of the three methods of access control (RBAC, DAC, and MAC), RBAC is the least secure of the options. a. b. 1 AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) / 10.3 - Track the processes of authentication, authorization, and auditing on a network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 7. By default, Active Directory is configured to use the Kerberos protocol, but can be configured to use LDAP or a combination of LDAP and Kerberos. a. b. 1 Access Control Technologies / 10.4 - Explain the available options in network access control methods 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 8. When utilizing Kerberos, an access granting ticket is the same as a key. a. b. 1 Access Control Technologies / 10.4 - Explain the available options in network access control methods 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 9. The supplicant is an EAP entity responsible for requesting authentication, such as a smartphone or laptop. a. b. 1 Wireless Network Security / 10.5 - Configure various security measures on a wireless network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 10. The PEAP standard creates an encrypted TLS tunnel between the supplicant and the server before proceeding with the usual EAP process. a. b. 1 Wireless Network Security / 10.5 - Configure various security measures on a wireless network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 11. Which of the following is an example of proxy server software? a. Squid b. BIND c. Snort d. Apache a 1 Network Security Devices Multiple Choice 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 12. What is NOT a variable that an network access control list can filter traffic with? a. The Network layer protocol used for the packet. b. The Transport layer protocol used for the packet. c. The source or destination TCP/UDP port number in the packet. d. The operating system used by the source or destination device. d 1 Network Security Devices Multiple Choice 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 13. In ACL statements, using the "any" keyword is equivalent to using a wildcard mask of what value? a. 0.0.0.0 b. 255.255.255.255 c. 255.255.0.0 d. 0.0.255.255 b 1 Network Security Devices Multiple Choice 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 14. What kind of firewall can block designated types of traffic based on application data contained within packets? a. stateful firewall b. stateless firewall c. content-filtering firewall d. packet-filtering firewall c 1 Network Security Devices Multiple Choice 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 15. On a Linux system, which command allows you to modify settings used by the built-in packet filtering firewall? a. ipf b. modfire c. iptables d. netwall c 1 Network Security Devices Multiple Choice 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 16. What is a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system utilized for? a. It is an advanced intrusion protection system with a GUI-frontend. b. It is a system used to evaluate data from security devices and generate alerts. c. It is an intellectual property protection software that prevents data links, and generates alerts. d. It is a system that monitors security device hardware availability. b 1 Network Security Devices Multiple Choice 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 17. When using Spanning Tree Protocol, what is the first step in selecting paths through a network? a. STP must first select the root bridge, or master bridge. b. STP examines the possible paths between all other bridges. c. STP disables links that are not part of a shortest path. d. STP begins to block BPDUs on non-designated ports. a 1 Switch Management Multiple Choice 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 18. In order to prevent ports that are serving network hosts from being considered as best paths, what should be enabled to block BPDUs? a. BPDU filter b. BPDU guard c. root guard d. BPDU drop b 1 Switch Management Multiple Choice 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 19. Which protocol designed to replace STP operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model? a. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) b. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links (TRILL) c. Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) d. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) c 1 Switch Management Multiple Choice 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 20. You have been tasked with the configuration of a Juniper switch, and have been told to restrict the number of MAC addresses allowed in the MAC address table. What command should you use? a. set max-mac b. set total-macs c. mac-address limit d. mac-limit d 1 Switch Management Multiple Choice 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 21. Enforcing a virtual security perimeter using a client's geographic location is known by what term? a. geohashing b. geofencing c. geolocating d. geolocking b 1 AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) Multiple Choice 10.3 - Track the processes of authentication, authorization, and auditing on a network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 22. When using Kerberos, what is the purpose of a ticket? a. It is the name for a Kerberos client or user. b. It is a key used by the client to gain access to services that are protected by the key on the network. c. It is a temporary set of credentials that a client uses to prove to other servers that its identity has been validated. d. It is the event that is generated when auditing a resource and unauthorized access is attempted. c 1 Access Control Technologies Multiple Choice 10.4 - Explain the available options in network access control methods 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 23. Which legacy authentication protocol requires mutual authentication? a. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) b. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) c. Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP) d. Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, version 2 (MS-CHAPv2) d 1 Access Control Technologies Multiple Choice 10.4 - Explain the available options in network access control methods 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 24. By far the most popular AAA service, what open-source service runs in the Application layer and can use UDP or TCP in the Transport layer? a. Google Authenticator b. RADIUS c. TACACS+ d. Kerberos b 1 Access Control Technologies Multiple Choice 10.4 - Explain the available options in network access control methods 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 25. Which adaptation of EAP utilizes EAP-MSCHAPv2 inside of an encrypted TLS tunnel? a. EAP-TLS b. Protected EAP (PEAP) c. EAP-FAST d. LEAP b 1 Wireless Network Security Multiple Choice 10.5 - Configure various security measures on a wireless network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 26. What IEEE standard includes an encryption key generation and management scheme known as TKIP? a. 802.11i b. 802.11h c. 802.1X d. 802.11j a 1 Wireless Network Security Multiple Choice 10.5 - Configure various security measures on a wireless network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 27. What descendant of the Spanning Tree Protocol is defined by the IEEE 802.1W standard, and can detect as well as correct for link failures in milliseconds? a. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links (TRILL) b. Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) c. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) d. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) c 1 Switch Management Multiple Choice 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 28. You have been asked by your superior to configure all Cisco network switches to allow only acceptable MAC addresses through switch access ports. How is this accomplished? a. Use the switchport port-security command to enable MAC filtering. b. Use the mac-limit command to prevent more than one MAC from being accepted. c. Use the allowed-mac command to filter by MAC address. d. Use the secure port mac-address command to limit the port to learned addresses only. a 1 Switch Management Multiple Choice 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 29. What aspect of AAA is responsible for determining what a user can and cannot do with network resources? a. authentication b. authorization c. accounting d. accessibility b 1 AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) Multiple Choice 10.3 - Track the processes of authentication, authorization, and auditing on a network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 30. What statement regarding role-based access control is accurate? a. RBAC allows a network administrator to base privileges and permissions around a detailed description of a user's roles or jobs. b. RBAC allows users to decide for themselves who has access to that user's resources. c. RBAC organizes resources into hierarchical classifications, such as "confidential" or "top secret". d. RBAC is the most restrictive method of access control. a 1 AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) Multiple Choice 10.3 - Track the processes of authentication, authorization, and auditing on a network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 31. Which encryption standard was originally utilized with WPA's TKIP? a. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) b. Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) c. Blowfish d. Data Encryption Standard (DES) b 1 Wireless Network Security Multiple Choice 10.5 - Configure various security measures on a wireless network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 32. The Wired Equivalent Privacy standard had what significant disadvantage? a. It did not allow the use of a password for access to the network. b. It provided no encryption for traffic sent over the air. c. It used a shared encryption key for all clients, and the key might never change. d. It only encrypted the initial connection authentication, but did not encrypt subsequent traffic. c 1 Wireless Network Security Multiple Choice 10.5 - Configure various security measures on a wireless network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 33. In Open System Authentication, how does authentication occur? a. The client sends a pre-shared key along with the access point's SSID. b. The client requests an encrypted tunnel, after which, the client's MAC serves as the authentication. c. The access point forces the client to authenticate via a captive portal, after which all communication is encrypted. d. The client "authenticates" using only the SSID name. In other words, no real authentication occurs. d 1 Wireless Network Security Multiple Choice 10.5 - Configure various security measures on a wireless network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 34. The Group Policy utility can be opened by typing what name into a Run box? a. secpol.msc b. gpedit.msc c. grouppol.msc d. grppol.msc b 1 AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) Multiple Choice 10.3 - Track the processes of authentication, authorization, and auditing on a network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 35. When using Spanning Tree Protocol, which port on non-root bridges can forward traffic toward the root bridge? a. Only one root port, which is the bridge's port that is closest to the root bridge, can forward. b. Only one root port, which is the bridge's port that is furthest from the root bridge, can forward. c. All ports can forward frames to the root bridge, provided they are not in a down state. d. All ports will forward frames to the root bridge, unless a BPDU is received back on that same port. a 1 Difficult Switch Management Multiple Choice 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 36. Which of the following terms is used to describe the configuration of a port to copy all traffic passing through the switch to the device at the other end of the port? a. port supertrunking b. port mirroring c. port shadowing d. port lurking b 1 Switch Management Multiple Choice 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 37. In regards to the use of local authentication, what statement is accurate? a. Local authentication provides the most security. b. Local authentication is scalable for large networks. c. Local authentication is network and server failure tolerant. d. Local authentication does not allow for strong enough passwords. c 1 AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) Multiple Choice 10.3 - Track the processes of authentication, authorization, and auditing on a network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 38. What scenario might be ideal for the use of root guard in configuring a switch? a. You wish to block BPDUs on an access port serving network hosts. b. You wish to disable STP on a port connected to a partnered company's switch. c. You wish to prevent switches beyond a certain port from becoming the root bridge, but still wish to use STP. d. You wish to prevent a rogue switch or computer from hijacking the network's STP paths. c 1 Difficult Switch Management Multiple Choice 10.2 - Implement security precautions on a switch 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 39. When using a host-based intrusion detection system, what additional feature might be available to alert the system of any changes made to files that shouldn't change? a. file integrity monitoring (FIM) b. file change management (FCM) c. file access auditing (FAA) d. file checksum watching (FCW) a 1 Network Security Devices Multiple Choice 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 40. What statement correctly describes a stateless firewall? a. A stateless firewall manages each incoming packet as a stand-alone entity, without regard to currently active connections. b. A stateless firewall inspects each incoming packet to determine whether it belongs to a currently active connection. c. A stateless firewall blocks designated types of traffic based on application data contained within packets. d. A stateless firewall filters packets based on source and destination IP addresses. a 1 Network Security Devices Multiple Choice 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 41. How does a reverse proxy differ from a normal proxy? Whereas proxy servers access resources on the Internet for a client, a reverse proxy provides services to Internet clients from servers on its own network. In this case, the reverse proxy provides identity protection for the server rather than the client, as well as some amount of firewall protection. Reverse proxies are particularly useful when multiple web servers are accessed through the same public IP address. 1 Difficult Network Security Devices Subjective Short Answer 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 42. If your LAN utilizes a proxy server, and you wish to send an email message from your workstation inside the LAN to a colleague via the Internet, what does this process look like? The process works as follows: Step 1: Your message goes to the proxy server. Depending on the configuration of your network, you might or might not have to log on separately to the proxy server first. Step 2: The proxy server repackages the data frames that make up the message so that, rather than your workstation's IP address being the source, the proxy server inserts its own IP address as the source. Step 3: The proxy server passes your repackaged data to a packet-filtering firewall. Step 4: The firewall verifies that the source IP address in your packets is valid (that it came from the proxy server) and then sends your message to the Internet. 1 Difficult Network Security Devices Subjective Short Answer 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 43. What is the purpose of Unified Threat Management (UTM)? Unified Threat Management is a security strategy that combines multiple layers of security appliances and technologies into a single safety net. A UTM solution can provide a full spread of security services managed from a single point of control. One disadvantage to this arrangement is that the "total" really is the sum of its parts. So, if one layer of coverage in a UTM is low quality, overall protection is significantly compromised. UTM, due to its multiplicity of features, also requires a great deal of processing power. Because this is less of a challenge today than it was in the past, UTM is regaining ground as a leading security strategy, especially for small- to medium-sized businesses that benefit the most from devices needing little configuration or management. 1 Difficult Network Security Devices Subjective Short Answer 10.1 - Describe the functions and features of various network security devices 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 44. What are the three components required to manage access control to a network and its resources? The three components required are as follows: * authentication-Authentication, in this case, user authentication, is the process of verifying a user's credentials (typically a username and password) to grant the user access to secured resources on a system or network. In other words, authentication asks the question, "Who are you?" * authorization-Once a user has access to the network, the authorization process determines what the user can and cannot do with network resources. In other words, authorization asks the question, "What are you allowed to do?" Authorization restrictions affect Layer 2 segmentation, Layer 3 filtering, and Layer 7 entitlements. For example, what VLAN are you assigned to? What servers or databases can you access? What commands can you run on a device? * accounting-The accounting system logs users' access and activities on the network. In other words, accounting asks, "What did you do?" The records that are kept in these logs are later audited, either internally or by an outside entity, to ensure compliance with existing organizational rules or external laws and requirements. 1 Difficult AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) Subjective Short Answer 10.3 - Track the processes of authentication, authorization, and auditing on a network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 45. In a network access control (NAC) system, what are the two different types of software agents that are commonly used? Two types of agents that are commonly used are: * A nonpersistent agent, or dissolvable agent, remains on the device long enough to verify compliance and complete authentication, and then uninstalls. Devices might be required to periodically reinstall the agent to complete the authentication process again. * A persistent agent is permanently installed on a device. This more robust program might provide additional security measures, such as remote wipe, virus scans, and mass messaging. 1 Difficult AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) Subjective Short Answer 10.4 - Explain the available options in network access control methods 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 46. What is multifactor authentication, and what are some examples? An authentication process that requires two or more pieces of information is known as MFA (multifactor authentication). There are five categories of authentication factors. These factors, along with some examples of each, are: * something you know-A password, PIN, or biographical data * something you have-An ATM card, smart card, or key * something you are-Your fingerprint, facial pattern, or iris pattern * somewhere you are-Your location in a specific building or secured closet * something you do-The specific way you type, speak, or walk Multifactor authentication requires at least one authentication method from at least two different categories. For example, logging into a network might require a password, a fingerprint scan, plus a piece of information generated from a security token. A security token is a device or application that stores or generates information, such as a series of numbers or letters, known only to its authorized user. 1 Difficult Access Control Technologies Subjective Short Answer 10.4 - Explain the available options in network access control methods 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 47. Describe the TACACS+ AAA protocol, and detail how it differs from RADIUS. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus), offers network administrators the option of separating the authentication, authorization, and auditing capabilities. For instance, TACACS1 might provide access and accounting functions, but use another technique, such as Kerberos, to authenticate users. TACACS+ differs from RADIUS in that it: * Relies on TCP, not UDP, at the Transport layer. * Was developed by Cisco Systems, Inc., for proprietary use. * Is typically installed on a router or switch, rather than on a server. * Encrypts all information transmitted for AAA (RADIUS only encrypts the password). 1 Difficult Access Control Technologies Subjective Short Answer 10.4 - Explain the available options in network access control methods 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 48. How does the CCMP help ensure data confidentiality? CCMP helps ensure data confidentiality with both encryption and packet authentication by providing: * message integrity-CCMP uses CBC-MAC, which ensures incoming packets are, in fact, coming from their declared source, and does so using the block cipher algorithm AES, described next. * encryption-CCMP also uses AES (Advanced Encryption Standard), which provides faster and more secure encryption than TKIP for wireless transmissions. AES relies on a more sophisticated family of ciphers along with multiple stages of data transformation. 1 Difficult Wireless Network Security Subjective Short Answer 10.5 - Configure various security measures on a wireless network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 49. What is the difference between an Intrusion Detection System and an Intrusion Protection System? An IDS (intrusion detection system) is a stand-alone device, an application, or a built-in feature running on a workstation, server, switch, router, or firewall. It monitors network traffic, generating alerts about suspicious activity. Whereas a router's ACL or a firewall acts like a bouncer at a private club who checks everyone's ID and ensures that only club members enter through the door, an IDS is generally installed to provide security monitoring inside the network, similar to security personnel sitting in a private room monitoring closed-circuit cameras in the club and alerting other security personnel when they see suspicious activity. Although an IDS can only detect and log suspicious activity, an IPS (intrusion prevention system) stands in-line between the attacker and the targeted network or host, and can prevent traffic from reaching that network or host. If an IDS is similar to security personnel using closed-circuit cameras to monitor a private club, an IPS would be similar to security personnel walking around in the club available to escort unruly patrons to the exit door. IPSes were originally designed as a more comprehensive traffic analysis and protection tool than firewalls. 1 Difficult Network Security Devices Subjective Short Answer 10.5 - Configure various security measures on a wireless network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 50. How does the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) function? RADIUS is an open-source standard developed by Livingston Enterprises in 1991 and later standardized by the IETF. It runs in the Application layer and can use either UDP or, as of 2012, TCP in the Transport layer. RADIUS treats authentication and authorization as a single process, meaning that the same type of packet is used for both functions, while accounting is a separate process. RADIUS can operate as a software application on a remote access server or on a computer dedicated to this type of authentication, called a RADIUS server. Because RADIUS servers are highly scalable, many ISPs use a RADIUS server as a central authentication point for wireless, mobile, and remote users. RADIUS services are often combined with other network services on a single machine. 1 Difficult Access Control Technologies Subjective Short Answer 10.5 - Configure various security measures on a wireless network 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1/27/2018 1:35 PM 1. Most UNIX and Linux desktop operating systems provide a GUI application for easily viewing and filtering the information in system logs. a. b. 1 Collecting Network Data / 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 2. The SNMP version 3 protocol introduces authentication, validation, and encryption for messages exchanged between devices and the network management console. a. b. 1 Collecting Network Data / 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 3. Wireshark or any other monitoring software running on a single computer connected to a switch doesn't see all the traffic on a network, but only the traffic the switch sends to it, which includes broadcast traffic and traffic specifically addressed to the computer. a. b. 1 Collecting Network Data / 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 4. Class of Service utilizes 8 levels of priority, and modifies the PCP field in an 802.1Q tag. a. b. 1 Managing Network Traffic / 11.2 - Adjust device configurations to optimize network performance 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 5. You can find out where various logs are kept on some UNIX and Linux systems by viewing the /etc/syslog.conf or /etc/rsyslog.conf files. a. b. 1 Collecting Network Data / 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 6. Setting a NIC to run in promiscuous mode will allow it to see all network traffic passing through a network switch. a. b. 1 Collecting Network Data / 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 7. A system with an availability of 99.999% can be down for a maximum of 52 minutes per year. a. b. 1 Network Availability / 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 8. A RAID 5 configuration requires a minimum of two hard disks to operate. a. b. 1 Network Availability / 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 9. A brownout is a momentary decrease in voltage; also known as a sag. a. b. 1 Network Availability / 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 10. A hot site consists of computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, but without appropriate configuration. a. b. 1 Response and Recovery / 11.4 - Identify best practices for incident response and disaster recovery 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 11. When using SNMP with TLS, what port do agents receive requests on? a. 161 b. 162 c. 10161 d. 10162 c 1 Collecting Network Data Multiple Choice 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 12. At what point is a packet considered to be a giant? a. It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size. b. It becomes a giant when it exceeds 1500 bytes. c. It becomes a giant only when fragmented pieces are reassembled and the packet size is too large. d. It becomes a giant once a VLAN tag is added. a 1 Collecting Network Data Multiple Choice 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 13. Packets that are smaller than a medium's minimum packet size are known by what term below? a. jabbers b. giants c. ghosts d. runts d 1 Collecting Network Data Multiple Choice 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 14. When a device handles electrical signals improperly, usually resulting from a bad NIC, it is referred to by what term below? a. ghost b. jabber c. talker d. blabber b 1 Collecting Network Data Multiple Choice 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 15. When using DiffServ, what type of forwarding utilizes a minimum departure rate from a given node, which is then assigned to each data stream? a. assured forwarding b. prioritized forwarding c. scaled forwarding d. expedited forwarding d 1 Managing Network Traffic Multiple Choice 11.2 - Adjust device configurations to optimize network performance 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 16. What 3-bit field in a 802.1Q tag is modified to set a frame's Class of Service (CoS)? a. EtherType b. CRC checksum c. Tag Protocol Identifier (TPID) d. Priority Code Point (PCP) d 1 Managing Network Traffic Multiple Choice 11.2 - Adjust device configurations to optimize network performance 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 17. A highly available server is available what percentage of the time? a. 90% b. 99% c. 99.99% d. 99.999% d 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 18. What happens when an NMS uses the SNMP walk command? a. The NMS sends a request for data to the agent on a managed device. b. The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database. c. The NMS requests a list of all active SNMP traps on the system. d. The NMS walks through a list of given SNMP hosts. b 1 Collecting Network Data Multiple Choice 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 19. When Comcast was found to be interfering with BitTorrent traffic, what method was being used? a. Comcast was creating access lists that blocked known BitTorrent trackers. b. Comcast was interjecting TCP segments with the RST (reset) field set. c. Comcast used DNS poisoning to prevent clients from talking to other BitTorrent users. d. Comcast used IP spoofing to impersonate other BitTorrent clients, then dropped traffic. b 1 Managing Network Traffic Multiple Choice 11.2 - Adjust device configurations to optimize network performance 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 20. What term is used to describe the average amount of time that will pass for a device before a failure is expected to occur? a. estimated time to failure (ETTF) b. product cycle lifetime (PCL) c. maximum time available (MTA) d. mean time between failures (MTBF) d 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 21. The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard? a. IEEE 802.3af b. IEEE 802.1cd c. IEEE 802.3ad d. IEEE 802.3bd c 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 22. Which of the following statements describes a RAID 0 configuration? a. In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance. b. In a RAID 0, data is mirrored on multiple disks to provide fault tolerance. c. In a RAID 0, data is striped across three or more drives, with parity information added to the data. d. In a RAID 0, four or more disks are used to mirror data within each pair of disks, and then striped to multiple pairs of disks. a 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 23. What Storage Area Network (SAN) protocol runs on top of TCP, and can be used on an existing twisted-pair Ethernet network, while maintaining low cost? a. Fibre Channel (FC) b. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) c. Internet SCSI (iSCSI) d. InfiniBand (IB) c 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 24. A differential backup covers what data on a system? a. It includes all data every time it is performed. b. It includes only data that has changed since the last backup. c. It includes data that has changed since the last full backup. d. It includes data that has changed since the last incremental backup. c 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 25. Which type of uninterruptible power supply uses AC power to continuously charge its battery, while also providing power to devices through the battery? a. standby UPS b. online UPS c. line conditioning UPS d. surge UPS b 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 26. In planning for disaster recovery, what is the ultimate goal? a. The preservation of critical data. b. The continuation of business. c. The management of damage. d. The protection of infrastructure. b 1 Response and Recovery Multiple Choice 11.4 - Identify best practices for incident response and disaster recovery 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 27. How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment? a. It protects against electrical surges. b. It shields equipment from lightning damage. c. It reduces fluctuations in incoming voltage. d. It filters line noise from incoming power. d 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 28. You are attempting to determine how available your Linux systems are, and need to find the current system uptime. What command should you use? a. uptime b. show runtime c. lastboot d. display stats a 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 29. What makes up the first 6 bits of the 8-bit DiffServ field? a. Priority Code Point (PCP) b. Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) c. Class of Service (CoS) d. Forward Error Correction (FEC) b 1 Difficult Managing Network Traffic Multiple Choice 11.2 - Adjust device configurations to optimize network performance 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 30. A network TAP serves what purpose on a network? a. It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports. b. It provides wireless monitoring capabilities, as well as spectrum analysis. c. It monitors network throughput at a specific point in the network. d. It serves as a miniature firewall that can be placed in front of any connection. a 1 Collecting Network Data Multiple Choice 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 31. When viewing a syslog message, what does a level of 0 indicate? a. The message is an error condition on the system. b. The message is a warning condition on the system. c. The message is an emergency situation on the system. d. The message represents debug information. c 1 Collecting Network Data Multiple Choice 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 32. Each managed object on a managed device using SNMP is assigned which of the following? a. object identifier (OID) b. TCP/UDP port c. process ID d. inode number a 1 Collecting Network Data Multiple Choice 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 33. Once a device has failed, what metric measures the average amount of time to repair? a. mean time to repair (MTTR) b. mean time to restore (MTTR) c. mean field replacement time (MFRT) d. mean restoration time (MRT) a 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 34. What does the Common Address Redundancy Protocol do? a. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same MAC address. b. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address. c. It allows multiple devices to share the same fully qualified domain name. d. It allows multiple devices to share hardware resources. b 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 35. The grouping of multiple servers so that they appear as a single device to the rest of the network is known as which term? a. load balancing b. clustering c. link aggregating d. server overloading b 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 36. Which type of backup scheme only covers data that has changed since the last backup? a. full backup b. incremental backup c. differential backup d. snapshot backup b 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 37. What is distributed switching? a. It is when multiple physical switches are configured to act as a single switch. b. It is multiple switches that provide redundancy switching for all switches in the group. c. It is a single physical switch that is partitioned in software to perform as multiple switches. d. It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts. d 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 38. If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day? a. .4 seconds b. 8 seconds c. 1 minute, 26 seconds d. 14 minutes, 23 seconds b 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 39. A snapshot is most similar to which type of backup scheme? a. incremental backup b. differential backup c. full backup d. versioned backup a 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 40. What statement regarding the use of a network attached storage device is accurate? a. A NAS does not contain its own file system, rather it relies on the host file system provided by individual clients. b. A NAS reads and writes from its disks significantly slower than other types of servers. c. A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service. d. A NAS can typically only support RAID-0 configurations. c 1 Network Availability Multiple Choice 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 41. How do the three versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol differ? Three versions of SNMP exist: SNMPv1, SNMPv2, and SNMPv3, as described below: * SNMPv1 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 1)-This is the original version, released in 1988. Because of its limited features, it is rarely used on modern networks. * SNMPv2 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 2)-This version improved on SNMPv1 with increased performance and slightly better security, among other features. * SNMPv3 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 3)-This version is similar to SNMPv2, but adds authentication, validation, and encryption for messages exchanged between managed devices and the network management console. 1 Difficult Collecting Network Data Subjective Short Answer 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 42. What is the difference between a fault and a failure in relation to networking? The difference between failures and faults is as follows: * failure-A deviation from a specified level of system performance for a given period of time. In other words, a failure occurs when something doesn't work as promised or as planned. For example, if your car breaks down on the highway, you can consider the breakdown to be a failure. * fault-A malfunction of one component of a system. A fault can result in a failure. For example, the fault that caused your car to break down might be a leaking water pump. The goal of fault-tolerant systems is to prevent faults from progressing to failures. 1 Difficult Network Availability Subjective Short Answer 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 43. The DiffServ technique for addressing QoS issues defines what two different types of data stream forwarding? DiffServ defines the following two types of forwarding: * EF (Expedited Forwarding)-A data stream is assigned a minimum departure rate from a given node. This technique circumvents delays that slow normal data from reaching its destination on time and in sequence. * AF (Assured Forwarding)-Different levels of router resources can be assigned to data streams. AF prioritizes data handling, but provides no guarantee that on a busy network messages will arrive on time and in sequence. 1 Difficult Managing Network Traffic Subjective Short Answer 11.2 - Adjust device configurations to optimize network performance 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 44. What are some of the more common network performance metrics that are utilized? Some of the more common performance metrics are as follows: * utilization-This metric refers to the actual throughput used as a percentage of available bandwidth. No network should operate at maximum capacity. Identify patterns of utilization and ensure that available bandwidth accounts for utilization spikes. * error rate-Bits can be damaged in transit due to EMI or other interference. The calculated percentage of how often this occurs is the error rate. * packet drops-Packets that are damaged beyond use, arrive after their expiration, or are not allowed through an interface are dropped. Packet drops result in delayed network communications while devices wait for responses or have to resend transmissions. Knowing what's normal for your network will help you identify problems when packet drop rates vary. * jitter-All packets experience some latency. When successive packets experience varying amounts of latency, resulting in their arriving out of order, the user experience is degraded. This is called jitter, a problem that can be addressed through traffic management techniques. 1 Difficult Collecting Network Data Subjective Short Answer 11.1 - Use appropriate tools to monitor device and network events 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 45. The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) can be configured in what three different ways? LACP capable devices can be configured as follows: * static configuration-Both hosts are manually configured to handle the division of labor between the redundant links according to particular rules without the ability to compensate for errors. * passive mode-The port passively listens for LACP-defined link aggregation requests, but will not initiate the request. * active mode-The port is set to automatically and actively negotiate for link aggregation using LACP. This allows for fault tolerance should one or more links fail, as LACP will automatically reconfigure active links to compensate. In reality, this is the most common configuration for all ports involved in link aggregation, and provides the most protection against link misconfigurations or failures. 1 Difficult Network Availability Subjective Short Answer 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 46. In preparing and planning for disaster recovery, what is the difference between an incident and a disaster? An incident is any event, large or small, that has adverse effects on a network's availability or resources. This could be a security breach, such as a hacker gaining access to a user's account, an infection, such as a worm or virus, or an environmental issue, such as a fire or flood. A disaster on the other hand is an extreme type of incident, involving a network outage that affects more than a single system or limited group of users. 1 Difficult Response and Recovery Subjective Short Answer 11.4 - Identify best practices for incident response and disaster recovery 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 47. Sections of a disaster recovery plan related to computer systems should include what information? A disaster recovery plan should include the following in relation to computer systems: * Contact names and phone numbers for emergency coordinators who will execute the disaster recovery response in case of disaster, as well as roles and responsibilities of other staff. * Details on which data and servers are being backed up, how frequently backups occur, where backups are kept (off-site), and, most important, how backed-up data can be recovered in full. * Details on network topology, redundancy, and agreements with national service carriers, in case local or regional vendors fall prey to the same disaster. * Regular strategies for testing the disaster recovery plan. * A plan for managing the crisis, including regular communications with employees and customers. Consider the possibility that regular communication modes (such as phone lines) might be unavailable. 1 Difficult Response and Recovery Subjective Short Answer 11.4 - Identify best practices for incident response and disaster recovery 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 48. The creation of a response team should include what team roles? The suggested team roles include the following: * dispatcher-The person on call who first notices or is alerted to the problem. The dispatcher notifies the lead technical support specialist and then the manager. He or she also creates a record for the incident, detailing the time it began, its symptoms, and any other pertinent information about the situation. The dispatcher remains available to answer calls from clients or employees or to assist the manager. * technical support specialist-The team member who focuses on only one thing: solving the problem as quickly as possible. After the situation has been resolved, the technical support specialist describes in detail what happened and helps the manager find ways to avert such an incident in the future. Depending on the size of the organization and the severity of the incident, this role may be filled by more than one person. * manager-The team member who coordinates the resources necessary to solve the problem. If in-house technicians cannot handle the incident, the manager finds outside assistance. The manager also ensures that the security policy is followed and that everyone within the organization is aware of the situation. As the response ensues, the manager continues to monitor events and communicate with the public relations specialist. * public relations specialist-If necessary, this team member learns about the situation and the response and then acts as official spokesperson for the organization to the public or other interested parties. 1 Difficult Response and Recovery Subjective Short Answer 11.4 - Identify best practices for incident response and disaster recovery 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 49. In response to an incident, how should chain of custody of evidence be handled? All collected data must be carefully processed and tracked so it does not leave official hands at any point in the forensics process. Typically, documentation used to track chain of custody describes exactly what the evidence is, when it was collected, who collected it, its condition, and how it was secured. If at any point in the process you have custody of evidence, be sure to sign off on a chain of custody document, and obtain a signature from the next person in line when you hand over custody of the evidence. 1 Difficult Response and Recovery Subjective Short Answer 11.4 - Identify best practices for incident response and disaster recovery 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 50. What are the different types of power flaws that can cause damage? The following list describes power flaws that can damage your equipment: * surge-A momentary increase in voltage due to lightning strikes, solar flares, or electrical problems. Surges might last only a few thousandths of a second, but can degrade a computer's power supply. Surges are common. You can guard against surges by making sure every computer device is plugged into a surge protector, which redirects excess voltage away from the device to a ground, thereby protecting the device from harm. Without surge protectors, systems would be subjected to multiple surges each year. * noise-Fluctuation in voltage levels caused by other devices on the network or EMI. Some noise is unavoidable on an electrical circuit, but excessive noise can cause a power supply to malfunction, immediately corrupting program or data files and gradually damaging motherboards and other computer circuits. If you've ever turned on fluorescent lights or a microwave oven and noticed the lights dim, you have probably introduced noise into the electrical system. Power that is free from noise is called clean power. To make sure power is clean, a circuit must pass through an electrical filter. * brownout-A momentary decrease in voltage; also known as a sag. An overtaxed electrical system can cause brownouts, which you might recognize in your home as a dimming of the lights. Such voltage decreases can cause computers or applications to fail and potentially corrupt data. * blackout-A complete power loss. A blackout could cause significant damage to your network. For example, if a server loses power while files are open and processes are running, its NOS might be damaged so extensively that the server cannot restart and the NOS must be reinstalled from scratch. A backup power source, however, can provide power long enough for the server to shut down properly and avoid harm. 1 Difficult Network Availability Subjective Short Answer 11.3 - Identify methods to increase network availability 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1/27/2018 1:37 PM 1. WANs connect nodes, such as workstations, servers, printers, and other devices, in a small geographical area on a single network. a. b. 1 Wide Area Networks / 12.1 - Identify the fundamental elements of WAN service options 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 2. In a frame relay WAN, the ISP typically has the data circuit terminating equipment (DCE). a. b. 1 Layer 2 WAN Technologies / 12.3 - Compare and contrast Layer 2 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 3. An 802.11ac signal can travel for approximately 2 miles from the source. a. b. 1 Wireless WANs / 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 4. In a public switched telephone network, lines are terminated at the central office. a. b. 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies / 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 5. DSL signals travel over telephone lines using the 300 to 3300 Hz frequency range. a. b. 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies / 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 6. DSL services require many subscribers to share the same local line, causing potential security concerns. a. b. 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies / 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 7. Although MPLS can operate over Ethernet frames, it is more often used with other Layer 2 protocols, like those designed for WANs. a. b. 1 Layer 2 WAN Technologies / 12.3 - Compare and contrast Layer 2 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 8. Most satellites circle the Earth 22,300 miles above the equator in a geosynchronous orbit. a. b. 1 Wireless WANs / 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 9. CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) is an open standard that is accepted and used worldwide. a. b. 1 Wireless WANs / 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 10. The word "synchronous" as used in the name of Synchronous Optical Network means that data being transmitted and received by nodes must conform to a timing scheme. a. b. 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies / 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 11. What is the maximum throughput of a DS3 connection? a. 1.544 Mbps b. 3.152 Mbps c. 44.736 Mbps d. 274.176 Mbps c 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 12. Multiplexing enables a single T1 circuit to carry how many channels? a. 1 b. 12 c. 24 d. 64 c 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 13. In an ISDN connection, what amount of throughput did a single B channel provide? a. 32 Kbps b. 48 Kbps c. 64 Kbps d. 96 Kbps c 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 14. What is the size of an ATM cell, including the header? a. 48 bytes b. 53 bytes c. 64 bytes d. 84 bytes b 1 Layer 2 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.3 - Compare and contrast Layer 2 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 15. Which of the following is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit? a. You are guaranteed to receive the maximum amount of bandwidth specified in the circuit contract b. You pay only for the bandwidth you require. c. The paths that your data will take are always known. d. Frame relay is a newly established network technology with more features than other technology. b 1 Layer 2 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.3 - Compare and contrast Layer 2 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 16. Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today? a. ADSL b. VDSL c. SDSL d. G.Lite a 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 17. The DTE or endpoint device for a leased line is known as which device below? a. CSU/DSU b. cable modem c. DSL modem d. ISDN modem a 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 18. What OC level is primarily used as a regional ISP backbone, and occasionally by very large hospitals, universities, or other major enterprises? a. OC-3 b. OC-12 c. OC-48 d. OC-96 c 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 19. The C-Band utilized by satellites consists of what frequency range? a. 1.5 - 2.7 GHz b. 2.7 - 3.5 GHz c. 3.4 - 6.7 GHz d. 12 - 18 GHz c 1 Wireless WANs Multiple Choice 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 20. In metro settings, end-to-end, carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol? a. Metro Carrier Transport b. Carrier Ethernet Transport c. Intra-city Ethernet d. Ethernet SONET b 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 21. Which statement regarding the use of cable modems is NOT accurate? a. Modems that utilize the DOCSIS 3.0 or 3.1 standard are backward compatible with older DOCSIS networks. b. DOCSIS 3.1 allows for full duplex speeds up to 10 Gbps. c. Cable modems only operate at the Physical layer of the OSI model. d. Cable broadband provides a dedicated and continuous connection. c 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 22. The T-carrier standards, also called T-CXR standards, utilize what type of multiplexing over two wire pairs to create multiple channels? a. wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) b. frequency division multiplexing (FDM) c. orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM) d. time division multiplexing (TDM) d 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 23. On an ATM network, how is the path that data will take determined? a. Switches determine the optimal path between sender and receiver, and then establish the path before transmission. b. Data is transmitted, and then the path taken will vary depending on the load encountered at each ATM participant node. c. A frame relay route table establishes each hop that will be taken to a single destination. d. When data is ready to be transmitted, an ATM participating router will contact the destination ATM router, establish a tunnel, then pass the data. a 1 Layer 2 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 24. What type of virtual circuit allows connections to be established when parties need to transmit, then terminated after the transmission is complete? a. permanent virtual circuit (PVC) b. switched virtual circuit (SVC) c. dynamic virtual circuit (DVC) d. looping virtual circuit (LVC) b 1 WAN Essentials Multiple Choice 12.1 - Identify the fundamental elements of WAN service options 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 25. Which of the following Layer 1 WAN technologies is not normally used as last mile service, but rather traverses multiple ISP networks, connecting these networks to the Internet backbone? a. SONET (Synchronous Optical Network) b. T-carrier (T1s, fractional T1s, and T3s) c. Carrier-Ethernet Transport (CET) d. digital subscriber line (DSL) a 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 26. Where are MPLS labels placed within a frame? a. between the layer 3 header and the data payload b. between the data payload and the layer 2 trailer c. between the layer 2 header and the layer 3 header d. at the end of the layer 2 trailer c 1 Layer 2 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.3 - Compare and contrast Layer 2 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 27. What is a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) utilized for? a. It is used by routers to determine which circuit to forward a frame to in a frame relay network. b. It is used by routers to establish a packet-switched path to the destination. c. It is used by ATM switches to determine how to create a switched virtual circuit. d. It is a locally significant ID used to send connectionless information. a 1 Layer 2 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.3 - Compare and contrast Layer 2 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 28. Which statement regarding the Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) technology is accurate? a. In ATM, a message is called a frame and always consists of 1500 bytes of data. b. ATM can provide 4 levels of QoS, from best effort delivery to guaranteed, real-time transmission. c. ATM is highly dependent on predetermined schemes that specify the timing of data transmissions. d. ATM is a point-to-multipoint WAN access technology that uses packet switching. b 1 Layer 2 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.3 - Compare and contrast Layer 2 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 29. The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) utilizes what technology to create timeslots on a channel? a. frequency division multiplexing (FDM) b. wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) c. dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) d. time division multiple access (TDMA) d 1 Wireless WANs Multiple Choice 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 30. When using satellite services for your WAN connection, what statement is accurate? a. Satellite downlink rates range from 50 to 100 Mbps. b. Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues. c. Satellite services are only available for fixed location clients. d. Satellite uplink rates range from 5 to 10 Mbps. b 1 Wireless WANs Multiple Choice 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 31. Considering that multiple users occupy the same channel when using CDMA, how are various calls using this technology kept separate? a. The packets are coded such that individual calls can be distinguished. b. The packets include the end user's SIM IMEI in each packet. c. The sending and receiving of data is performed on different frequencies. Users hop between these frequencies to avoid interference. d. The transmissions are encrypted, such that only the appropriate device can decrypt its own call. a 1 Wireless WANs Multiple Choice 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 32. Which SONET OC level is a popular choice for large businesses, and is equivalent to 100 T1s? a. OC-1 b. OC-3 c. OC-12 d. OC-24 b 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 33. With a SIP trunk, what is the only limitation on the number of calls that can run at any one time? a. The maximum number of channels available on the transmission medium. b. The total number of time division slots allocated to the SIP client organization. c. The total number of SIP bearer channels provisioned on the SIP switch. d. The amount of available bandwidth. d 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 34. In North America, what ISDN connection type used two B channels and one D channel? a. Basic Rate Interface (BRI) b. Primary Rate Interface (PRI) c. Bearer Rate Interface (BRI) d. Dedicated Rate Interface (DRI) a 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 35. In a public switched telephone network, what portion of the network is known as the local loop? a. It is the inside wire within the residence or business that connects to the NIU. b. It is the portion of the network between the NIU and the remote switching facility. c. It is the portion of the network from the remote switching facility to the central office. d. It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office. d 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 36. Which type of DSL technology has equal download and upload speeds maxing out at around 2 Mbps? a. ADSL2+ b. VDSL c. HDSL d. SDSL d 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 37. When using DOCSIS 3.0, what is the minimum number of channels that can be used? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 16 c 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 38. A fractional T1's bandwidth can be leased multiples of what data rate? a. 28 Kbps b. 32 Kbps c. 48 Kbps d. 64 Kbps d 1 Layer 1 WAN Technologies Multiple Choice 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 39. In a cellular network, where does each wireless base station connect to? a. They connect directly to the central office. b. They connect to a mobile switching center. c. They connect to other wireless base stations, then to the central office. d. They connect to a wireless station repeater. b 1 Wireless WANs Multiple Choice 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 40. How many transponders are contained within a typical satellite? a. 8 to 16 b. 16 to 24 c. 24 to 32 d. 32 to 48 c 1 Wireless WANs Multiple Choice 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 41. List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology. The four generations of cell phone technology are as follows: * First-generation, or 1G, services from the 1970s and 1980s were analog. * Second-generation, or 2G, services, which reigned in the 1990s, used digital transmission and paved the way for texting and media downloads on mobile devices. Still, data transmission on 2G systems didn't exceed 240 Kbps. * Third-generation, or 3G, services were released in the early 2000s. Data rates rose to 384 Kbps and data (but not voice) communications used packet switching. * Fourth-generation, or 4G, services are characterized by an all-IP, packet-switched network for both data and voice transmission. 4G standards, released in 2008, also specify throughputs of 100 Mbps for fast-moving mobile clients, such as those in cars, and 1 Gbps for slow-moving mobile clients, such as pedestrians. * Fifth-generation, or 5G, services don't yet exist. However, industry analysts expect 5G devices to offer download speeds of up to 20 Gbps and upload speeds of up to 10 Gbps. 1 Difficult Wireless WANs Subjective Short Answer 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 42. How does a LAN connection differ from a WAN connection? The following list summarizes the major characteristics of WANs and explains how a WAN differs from a LAN: * LANs connect nodes, such as workstations, servers, printers, and other devices, in a small geographical area on a single organization's network, whereas WANs use networking devices, such as routers and modems, to connect networks spread over a wide geographical area. * Both LANs and WANs use the same protocols from Layers 3 and higher of the OSI model. * LANs and WANs may differ at Layers 1 and 2 of the OSI model in access methods, topologies, and, sometimes, media. For example, the way DSL transmits bits over a WAN differs from the way Ethernet transmits bits over a LAN. * LANs are mostly owned and operated by the companies that use them. On the other hand, WANs are usually owned and operated by telcos (telecommunications carriers), also known as NSPs (network service providers), such as AT&T, Verizon, Spectrum, and Comcast. Corporations lease WAN connections from these carriers, often with payments based on the amount of bandwidth actually used. 1 Difficult WAN Essentials Subjective Short Answer 12.1 - Identify the fundamental elements of WAN service options 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 43. What is the difference between a DTE and a DCE? The customer's endpoint device on the WAN is called the DTE (data terminal equipment), and the carrier's endpoint device for the WAN is called the DCE (data circuit terminating equipment). For example, if you have DSL service, you connect a home router with a DSL modem. A modem is a modulation/demodulation device that converts between digital and analog signals. In this case, the router is the DTE, usually owned by the customer, and the modem is the DCE, usually owned by the ISP. Generally, the DTE is the responsibility of the customer and the DCE is the responsibility of the ISP. The DTE communicates on the LAN, and the DCE communicates on the WAN. Sometimes the DTE and DCE are combined in the same device. For example, a router might have one WAN network adapter, or WIC (WAN interface connector), that connects to a fiber-optic or frame relay WAN and one LAN network adapter that connects to an Ethernet, twisted-pair LAN. 1 Difficult WAN Essentials Subjective Short Answer 12.1 - Identify the fundamental elements of WAN service options 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 44. The NIU (network interface unit) or NID (network interface device) at the ISP's demarc serves what purpose? The NIU, or NID (network interface device), at the demarc connects the ISP's local loop to the customer's network. A more intelligent version of an NIU is a smart jack, or INID (Intelligent NID), which can provide diagnostic information about the interface. For example, a smart jack might include loopback capabilities. Just like the loopback adapter you use to test a port or cable on your computer, the smart jack can loop the ISP's signal back to the CO (central office) for testing. The ISP is responsible for all wiring leading up to the NIU and for the NIU itself. The customer is responsible for everything past the NIU, unless the equipment is owned by the ISP, such as with a line driver, CSU/DSU, or set-top box. 1 Difficult WAN Essentials Subjective Short Answer 12.1 - Identify the fundamental elements of WAN service options 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 45. Describe the Synchronous Optical Network standard. SONET (Synchronous Optical Network) is a high-bandwidth WAN signaling technique developed for fiber-optic cabling by Bell Communications Research in the 1980s, and later standardized by ANSI and ITU. SONET specifies framing and multiplexing techniques at the Physical layer of the OSI model. Its four key strengths are that it: * Can integrate many other WAN technologies * Offers fast data transfer rates * Allows for simple link additions and removals * Provides a high degree of fault tolerance 1 Difficult Layer 1 WAN Technologies Subjective Short Answer 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 46. What is the MPLS standard, and why is it often used by ISPs to move traffic from one customer site to another? MPLS (multiprotocol label switching) was introduced by the IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) in 1999. It has some of the strengths of ATM while avoiding its weaknesses, combining elements of both circuit-switching and packet-switching. As its name implies, MPLS enables multiple types of Layer 3 protocols to travel over any one of several connection-oriented Layer 2 protocols. MPLS supports IP and all the other Layer 3 and higher protocols used on TCP/IP networks. MPLS can operate over Ethernet frames, but is more often used with other Layer 2 protocols, like those designed for WANs. For these reasons, it's often used by ISPs on their own networks for moving traffic from one customer site to another, and it's becoming the solution of choice for many enterprises to connect their branch offices. 1 Difficult Layer 2 WAN Technologies Subjective Short Answer 12.3 - Compare and contrast Layer 2 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 47. How is ATM able to guarantee a specific QoS for certain types of transmissions? Establishing a reliable connection allows ATM to guarantee a specific QoS for certain types of transmissions. ATM networks can supply four QoS levels, from a "best effort" attempt for noncritical data to a guaranteed, real-time transmission for time sensitive data. This is important for organizations using networks for time-sensitive applications, such as video and audio transmissions. For example, a company might want to use its ATM connection between two offices located at opposite sides of a state to carry voice phone calls with the highest possible QoS. On the other hand, the company might assign a low QoS to routine email messages exchanged between the two offices. 1 Difficult Layer 2 WAN Technologies Subjective Short Answer 12.3 - Compare and contrast Layer 2 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 48. Describe the HSPA+ (High Speed Packet Access Plus) and LTE (Long Term Evolution) cellular networking technologies. The HSPA+ began as a 3G technology released in 2008 that uses MIMO and sophisticated encoding techniques to achieve a maximum 168 Mbps downlink throughput and 22 Mbps uplink throughput in its current release. To achieve such speeds, HSPA+ uses limited channels more efficiently and incorporates more antennas in MIMO transmission. However, faster and more flexible technologies, such as LTE, are overtaking HSPA+ in popularity. LTE is a 4G technology that uses a different access method than HSPA+. While the latest version, LTE-Advanced, can theoretically achieve downlink data rates of up to 1 Gbps and uplink rates up to 100 Mbps, actual speeds are significantly less. LTE is currently the fastest wireless broadband service available in the United States. 1 Difficult Wireless WANs Subjective Short Answer 12.4 - Explain the most common wireless WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 49. What is the role of a multiplexer when working with T-carrier lines? A multiplexer combines multiple signals from a LAN for transport over the T-carrier line and separates an incoming T-carrier line's combined channels into individual signals that can be interpreted on the LAN. After being demultiplexed, an incoming T-carrier signal passes on to devices collectively known as terminal equipment. Examples of terminal equipment include switches, routers, or telephone exchange devices that accept only voice transmissions (such as a telephone switch). 1 Difficult Layer 1 WAN Technologies Subjective Short Answer 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 50. All ISDN connections were based on what two different types of channels? ISDN connections were based on the following two types of channels: * B channel-"Bearer" channel, employing circuit-switching techniques to carry voice, video, audio, and other types of data over the ISDN connection. A single B channel had a maximum throughput of 64 Kbps. The number of B channels in a single ISDN connection could vary. * D channel-"Data" channel, employing packet-switching techniques to carry information about the connection, such as session initiation and termination signals, caller identity, call forwarding, and conference calling signals. A single D channel had a maximum throughput of 16 or 64 Kbps, depending on the type of ISDN connection. Each ISDN connection used only one D channel. 1 Difficult Layer 1 WAN Technologies Subjective Short Answer 12.2 - Compare and contrast Layer 1 WAN technologies 1/27/2018 1:38 PM 1/27/2018 1:38 PM